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brianbauer04

macrumors member
Dec 4, 2010
36
0
Patents are supposed to be "non-obvious".

If it's easy to understand, the chances are it shouldn't be a patent in the first place.

Phazer

That is incorrect. Inventions that are perfectly obvious after the invention are the ones that are most worthy of patent protection.

These patents are around 15 years old. Were they obvious way back when an SMS was an amazing technology that was going to change the world? Back when Motorola blew people's minds by introducing the StarTac - a phone that could actually fold up and fit in your pocket?
 

ChazUK

macrumors 603
Feb 3, 2008
5,393
25
Essex (UK)
I am not getting why the 4S is any different.

Different radio hardware.
TheVerge said:
The dispute centers on a patent held by Motorola essential to the GPRS standard, and appears it is strictly about the license terms and money Motorola wanted for its patents, not any cross-licensing of Apple's iOS patents. The iPhone 4S is unaffected as it contains a baseband chip from Qualcomm, unlike earlier models that use Infineon chipsets. Apple uses an Infineon chip for its GSM iPad 2, leaving it affected by today's removals.
http://www.theverge.com/apple/2012/2/3/2768114/apple-iphone-ipad-removal-germany
 

goosnarrggh

macrumors 68000
May 16, 2006
1,602
20
The whole issue is that Moto is refusing to license the patent under reasonable terms which obviously a court will decide they must do. I wouldn't be surprised if Apple did it voluntarily to set up exactly a scenario that you described.

It's not like this is the end of iPhone because of a frand patent violation LOL...

The original judgment was based on the argument that Motorola made a FRAND offer initially, but Apple refused it. Instead, Apple made a counter-offer that the original judge deemed to be non-FRAND. This put Apple into the category of wilful infringer.

Until Apple makes/accepts a truly FRAND offer, Motorola is totally within its rights to takes steps to prevent Apple from selling anything that continues to violate the patent. Yes, that equally applies to FRAND patents.

The instant Apple came back and offered/accepted a licensing deal that fit the definition of FRAND, Motorola would be compelled to immediately accept the deal and drop the injunction. Apple would still be on the hook to pay damages for past sales they made while they had been wilfully infringing.
 

samcraig

macrumors P6
Jun 22, 2009
16,779
41,982
USA
The scenario is simple. Apple used patents that Motorola owns without paying for them. Apple will now be held liable until reasonable licensing fees are settled. And until that (or until an appeal) - Apple can't engage in certain commerce in Germany.

Is it a win for Motorola. Yes. Is it devastating to Apple? I don't think so. Although Apple did try and get Motorola to be on the hook for over 2 billion and the courts deemed it worth over 1 million for a bond.

If the situation was reversed, the usual suspects would be claiming victory and how Apple innovates and everyone else who "steals" from them should be brought down.

So some of the responses in this thread are not surprising in the slightest.
 

Oletros

macrumors 603
Jul 27, 2009
6,002
60
Premià de Mar
You could be right, but the argument, that the iPhone 4S uses a different chip and thereby isn't affected, makes the most sense to me at the moment.

From December:

Motorola's just scored a fairly big victory in its ongoing worldwide case against Apple: a German court has ruled that every iPhone up to the iPhone 4S and both 3G iPads infringe a Motorola patent held essential to the GPRS standard. (The iPhone 4S simply wasn't around when Motorola filed the case; it's likely but not certain it contains the same infringing elements.)

http://www.theverge.com/2011/12/9/2...an-patent-lawsuit-apple-sales-ban-iphone-ipad

Motorola filled the case on April 2.011 so it can't affect the iPhone 4, iPad 6 or iPod Nano 323


It's the correct argument.


No, is not the correct argument
 

5aga

macrumors 6502
Feb 18, 2003
489
201
Gig City
and the real loser is........ the consumer. Business as usual.

Imagine what these companies could accomplish in R&D with the $$$ they're using to sue one another.
 

oliversl

macrumors 65816
Jun 29, 2007
1,498
426
This is a easy one,
they steal the Apple phisical design and they told the lie that it is their innovation. Have you seen the Samsung ads?


What are they stealing and what lies are they telling to their users?
 

Hattig

macrumors 65816
Jan 3, 2003
1,457
92
London, UK
No not for past infringements, which is why I said they'll have to pay for infringing...

What's going to happen is, Motorola is going to demand an extravagant amount for past infringements, a judge is going to rule that it's an extravagant amount and penalize Apple another amount or Moto/Apple will settle, Motorola is going to be forced to license the FRAND patents in a fair, reasonable non-discriminatory way to Apple, and then Apple will continue making billions of dollars.

No biggie.

Yes, they will surely license the FRAND patents on the FRAND terms for products going forward, but they won't do that until the case is over-over-over, because licensing them beforehand is admitting to their validity (or so a court could decide). As for past damages, there will surely be arguments over that, but as they're not covered by FRAND any longer I don't see why the amount set should be linked to what the FRAND pricing would have been. Not licensing the patents did give Apple a competitive advantage, it damages the entire premise that FRAND operates on, etc, etc, etc.

In the meantime Motorola will take this win (and the other one) around Europe on a tourbus getting the products banned as they go.
 

voonyx

macrumors 6502a
Jul 19, 2011
842
0
The original judgment was based on the argument that Motorola made a FRAND offer initially, but Apple refused it. Instead, Apple made a counter-offer that the original judge deemed to be non-FRAND. This put Apple into the category of wilful infringer.

Until Apple makes/accepts a truly FRAND offer, Motorola is totally within its rights to takes steps to prevent Apple from selling anything that continues to violate the patent. Yes, that equally applies to FRAND patents.

The instant Apple came back and offered/accepted a licensing deal that fit the definition of FRAND, Motorola would be compelled to immediately accept the deal and drop the injunction. Apple would still be on the hook to pay damages for past sales they made while they had been wilfully infringing.

So you agree with me...?

Isn't that what I've said, what is it 3 times now? Apple will have to pay for past infringements, Motorola will have to accept a reasonable licensing term, and then business as usual.

What exactly are you disagreeing with that I said?

Hattig said:
Yes, they will surely license the FRAND patents on the FRAND terms for products going forward, but they won't do that until the case is over-over-over, because licensing them beforehand is admitting to their validity (or so a court could decide). As for past damages, there will surely be arguments over that, but as they're not covered by FRAND any longer I don't see why the amount set should be linked to what the FRAND pricing would have been. Not licensing the patents did give Apple a competitive advantage, it damages the entire premise that FRAND operates on, etc, etc, etc.

In the meantime Motorola will take this win (and the other one) around Europe on a tourbus getting the products banned as they go.

Yes, like I said Motorola can demand any extravagant, unreasonable amount they want for past infringements, but it's not like a judge is going to just let them have ten billion dollars for it. Apple will be hurt by the past infringements, and the loss of sales from pulling products, but its not going to make Apple go bankrupt...
 

goosnarrggh

macrumors 68000
May 16, 2006
1,602
20
So you agree with me...?

Isn't that what I've said, what is it 3 times now? Apple will have to pay for past infringements, Motorola will have to accept a reasonable licensing term, and then business as usual.

What exactly are you disagreeing with that I said?

I'm disagreeing with your assertion, which is quoted in my message above, that Motorola was refusing to accept a reasonable offer. Motorola made a reasonable offer, and Apple was the one that refused it.

Then Apple made a counter-offer, and a judge has ruled that Apple's counter-offer was non-FRAND. Therefore Motorola was within its rights to refuse it, because it was unreasonable.
 
Last edited:

voonyx

macrumors 6502a
Jul 19, 2011
842
0
Yes, they will surely license the FRAND patents on the FRAND terms for products going forward, but they won't do that until the case is over-over-over, because licensing them beforehand is admitting to their validity (or so a court could decide). As for past damages, there will surely be arguments over that, but as they're not covered by FRAND any longer I don't see why the amount set should be linked to what the FRAND pricing would have been. Not licensing the patents did give Apple a competitive advantage, it damages the entire premise that FRAND operates on, etc, etc, etc.

In the meantime Motorola will take this win (and the other one) around Europe on a tourbus getting the products banned as they go.

I'm disagreeing with your assertion that Motorola was refusing to accept a reasonable offer. They made a reasonable offer, which Apple refused.

Then Apple made a counter-offer, and a judge has ruled that Apple's counter-offer was non-FRAND. Therefore Motorola was within its rights to refuse it, because it was unreasonable.

Ah ok, got it. I apologize. At the end of the day, Apple will pay for infringement, and a reasonable offer will be accepted.
 

Oletros

macrumors 603
Jul 27, 2009
6,002
60
Premià de Mar
So you agree with me...?

Isn't that what I've said, what is it 3 times now? Apple will have to pay for past infringements, Motorola will have to accept a reasonable licensing term, and then business as usual.

What exactly are you disagreeing with that I said?

I think he doesn't agree with that:
The whole issue is that Moto is refusing to license the patent under reasonable terms which obviously a court will decide they must do. I wouldn't be surprised if Apple did it voluntarily to set up exactly a scenario that you described.

And he doesn't agree because the courts have proven that is totally wrong. It has been proven that Motorola offered a FRAND licenses and was Apple the ones that didn't agree.

And is also wrong that Apple voluntarily set up this scenario
 

samcraig

macrumors P6
Jun 22, 2009
16,779
41,982
USA
It's amazing that some people don't remember what they write in this short thread. If you're asserting that Motorola REFUSED to license the patent under reasonable terms - then you're falling short of the truth.

But since when has that stopped some posters and bloggers from insisting that they've been posting the truth all along.
 

rmwebs

macrumors 68040
Apr 6, 2007
3,140
0
“While some iPad and iPhone models are not available through Apple’s online store in Germany right now, customers should have no problem finding them at one of our retail stores or an authorized reseller,” [Apple spokesman Alan] Hely said.

So essentially nothing has changed.

Given that most of Apples direct sales are online, quite a bit has changed. I think you need a new glass of koolaid as yours has clearly gone bad.
 

PeterQVenkman

macrumors 68020
Mar 4, 2005
2,023
0
I think he doesn't agree with that:


And he doesn't agree because the courts have proven that is totally wrong. It has been proven that Motorola offered a FRAND licenses and was Apple the ones that didn't agree.

And is also wrong that Apple voluntarily set up this scenario

Your avatar freaks me out, man. ;)
 
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