Your position is so weak that you have to start off with childish arguments?! Or is it that you pirate digital products and get defensive to the point of ridiculousness whenever people rightly call you a thief?
That definition, if given at all, is listed as
archaic (in most dictionaries, anyway). The meaning to which you refer is from late 14c. and as a noun from early 15c.; "rape" in it's current sense is from late 15c. and has supplanted the original meaning.
You probably think you've beaten me in my own game, but the difference is that I used current meanings that people would use every day in normal speech while you had to use a definition that hasn't been in favour for over 500 years. We teach our children that taking something that doesn't belong to them is called stealing; likewise we teach them that rape is forcing sex on someone; we teach this because they are the vulgar meanings in current use. We don't teach them that "rape" is the act of abducting something since it hasn't meant that in centuries.
The funny thing is (to me at least) that "rape" was originally a legal term meaning
seize, carry off by force, abduct. I wouldn't be surprised if it's still on the books in the UK
More to the point though, what you've said there is no different than what you said in your previous post and my response is no different either: the fact that it doesn't meet the legal definition in no way changes the fact that it meets the definition of the common language. If "rape" still meant
to carry away . . . and was (potentially) used in common speech then that's exactly what your example would be.
Stealing is taking something that doesn't belong to you. Three-year-olds know this, why don't you?