Well, what I am looking for is this:
The Director of Development at my company told me the following:
- Apple takes 30% of all software sold through the App Store
- Apple also takes 10% on all software sold that runs on a Mac that is NOT sold through the App store.
I know the first is true, but the second? I am trying to find out details on that comment. I am not sure if he was looking at iOS development or OSX development, or if it is even true.
Example1: ExpeData created a iPad application naturalForms. The program, naturalForms, itself is free but to use it, you have to have an account with the ExpeData service. Does ExpeData have to pay Apple for the naturalForms to run on the iPad?
Example2: I develop a OSX application that I see on my web site but NEVER put into the OSX App Store, do I have to pay Apple for each sale of my software?
What I am looking for is where Apple addresses these issues. I have a geed friend that is a lawyer, so I have someone to interpret it for me, I just need to find where Apple addresses this type of thing.
One thought I had was... If I develop my own OSX application, put it into the OSX App Store and then sell it on my web site, Apple gets 10%, but they don't get anything if I don't put it into the App Store. I don't know, just trying to figure this all out
Sam