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patent10021

macrumors 68040
Original poster
Apr 23, 2004
3,590
866
Even though non-homogenized milk is closer to whole milk than homogenized milk and it's supposed to be creamier, I'm finding that the froth produced when making drinks like lattes is very little compared to the froth produced from homogenized milk.

When I make lattes using homogenized milk it's much more frothier like you'd find at a coffee shop that uses normal homogenized supermarket milk (sure some are using cream). How is that possible when non-homogenized milk is closer to raw/whole milk? Although I've never made drinks from raw milk before. Does raw milk produce more or less of that "fatty froth" than other milk?

Why is the froth from non-homogenized milk very little compared with regular low quality supermarket milk? Is it simply because good quality fat will produce actually less froth? So it's the opposite of what you'd expect? Even if you said that the homogenization process shouldn't make a difference on froth production, it is making a difference because it's actually producing less froth.

Thanks
 
Raw milk is unpasteurized which you normally can’t buy. I think you really mean non-homogenized. The lower the ft content the more froth you get from steamed milk. Kind of opposite from whipping cream. Try steaming skim milk or 1% at most. Whole homogenized milk is about 4% butterfat. The non-homogenized version might contain more butterfat. If you don’t shake it well you might get more cream and hence more butterfat.
 
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