Become a MacRumors Supporter for $50/year with no ads, ability to filter front page stories, and private forums.

Bear Hunter

macrumors 6502a
Original poster
Aug 10, 2008
598
0
Background:

1. I have two original 2g iPhones. I purchased a 3GS and activated it with the new sim that came with the phone. (i.e. did not use the sim that was in the 2g).

2. I am selling the 3GS and placing an order for an IP4. As you all know they are all on backorder so I will need to use my 2g until it arrives.

3. I switched the sim from my 3GS to one of the 2g's as a test, and it wants me to activate it in iTunes.

Questions:

1. If I activate the 2g in iTunes, is that all I need to do?

2. Does it screw up your bill in anyway? I assume it will ask me to activate as a new phone and I will have to choose data plan, etc.. Are there any hidden fees such as activation charges, etc.?

Appreciate the help
 
When my wife broke her BB she used our old 1st gen iPhone. I had to use the sim from the BB and had to call AT&T to do a few things before activating it through iTunes. Not a big deal at all.
 
I put the SIM from my wife's BB into my 3GS. The end. Didn't call AT&T and didn't have to activate it through iTunes.

Yeah...I don't know, didn't work for me. It's asking me to activate it in iTunes. Maybe it has something to do with the 2G?
 
Register on MacRumors! This sidebar will go away, and you'll see fewer ads.