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jasvncnt

macrumors 6502
Original poster
Jan 20, 2011
451
112
New Jersey
Not sure if this is the right section...Hi all. Need a little help if you would. Short story, have iphone 4 (at&t). Got a new phone took out my SIM and put it in. Took the iphone 4 and let my daughter use it as ipod touch. When I redid the iphone 4 for her and jailbroke it again i did it on her computer so she has al her apps syncing. Just got a puretalk USA SIM for her. Heres the issue. The phone now recognizes there is a SIM in it. But I get no service. Even if I take my original SIM out of my new phone and put it back in iphone I get the same thing. So my question is this...Since when I redid the phone for her and there was no SIM in Im assuming it never "activate"? Does this sound right? If so I will have to restore and jailbreak again to activate the phone with the original SIM in it?

UPDATE: Please close thread. Just for an FYI..ran redsn0w over jailbreak, deactivated, connected to itunes and all works great.
 
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