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iammike1

macrumors 6502a
Original poster
Oct 25, 2007
814
57
O'fallon IL
I don't even know how this would be possible. iPhone 5 with iOS 6 on Verizon coming from a Galaxy S3. Google Voice isn't even installed on the phone but was on my GS3.

I just sent a friend a first SMS. Not iMessage. He says it came from my GV number and not my Verizon number. How does that work?
 
Your friend probably texted your google voice number. When you received the text, it appeared as being from a google voice number, not your actual friends. When you reply, google automatically uses your google voice number to deliver. At least something to this effect. It may also depend on if your friend uses google voice.

From another website:"If someone sends an SMS to your GV number and their number is not in Google Voice, their real number is replaced with a 406 number so that the reply will come back through Google Voice, but if GV sees that the person receiving the SMS also has a GV #, their real number is replaced with their GV number, since it this will also cause the replies to route through GV."
 
I think the second is what is happening.

My Verizon number is associated with my GV number but I only use my GV normally for business.

I SMS'd his GV number from my Verizon number but GV made the association with my GV number and gave him that instead.

I'd rather it didn't but meh, it works I guess.
 
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