Here's the scenario.
A large company based in CA buys out a software development business in the UK. After a year, a few developers of the software leave, along with the business manager.
A year later, a few of the developers rejoin forces with the business manager, to form a new product and business, based in the UK, in competition with the product they used to develop. The software, is currently in development stage, with a paid, public beta to be launched tomorrow (Tuesday).
The large company is now making claims, on the eve, of infringement of our copyrighted intellectual property, breach of contract, and unfair business practices.
What is baffling me is how they can assert the first claim, given that no one has been given access to the software, bar the developers.
Am I right in saying that there's something going wrong here, in terms of the lawsuit?
For more details, read this: http://www.vbulletin.com/forum/show...-claims-against-Xenforo&p=2050616#post2050616.
I just want to know of your opinion.
A large company based in CA buys out a software development business in the UK. After a year, a few developers of the software leave, along with the business manager.
A year later, a few of the developers rejoin forces with the business manager, to form a new product and business, based in the UK, in competition with the product they used to develop. The software, is currently in development stage, with a paid, public beta to be launched tomorrow (Tuesday).
The large company is now making claims, on the eve, of infringement of our copyrighted intellectual property, breach of contract, and unfair business practices.
What is baffling me is how they can assert the first claim, given that no one has been given access to the software, bar the developers.
Am I right in saying that there's something going wrong here, in terms of the lawsuit?
For more details, read this: http://www.vbulletin.com/forum/show...-claims-against-Xenforo&p=2050616#post2050616.
I just want to know of your opinion.