Hello, When calling my mobile phone operator recently, the chap I was speaking to began launching into a scripted pitch regarding a sale they're currently having for home broadband. My current provider recently increased their prices, so if I took them up on their offer I'd stand to save around £10 a month. The guy I was speaking to also said that over the next couple of months they're rolling out their fibre optic broadband service. He said that I would automatically be moved over when the service became available in my area, that I could expect to receive between 60 and 80 Mbps downstream, and that the cable going into my home would not have to be changed and that no new sockets would have to be installed. Hmmm. What really made me suspicious, however, was when I told him that I currently have my own modem (ADSL 2+) and a separate wireless router, and that I'm happy with both and don't want to change them (if it ain't broke...). He assured me that it would be fine for me to continue using my own router, and that I would not even need a new modem. Now this last part sounds like complete ******** to me. I had always assumed that the maximum speed of ADSL 2+ was 24 Mbps, and from what I could glean from the technobabble on Wikipedia, this does indeed seem to be the case. Furthermore, I would also assume (though I have to say I don't know much about these things) that a different form of modulation would be used over fibre optic in order to achieve these supposed 6080 Mbps. Is this the case? Was the call centre man just telling me whatever he thought I wanted to hear in order to get a sale? My suspicions weren't exactly assuaged when he reassured me that new cable would definitely not need to be run to my house (this in itself is completely plausible and what I would expect), as the improved fibre optic speeds were determined by the way in which 'they jiggle the cable around or something' (not as plausible). For the record the modem I have is a Draytek Vigor 120. Thanks in advance for any help or advice!