Are you sure about this? I have just read the legislation but it's really late and I might have missed it, so can you please reference it?
Legislation is posted here http://eur-lex.europa.eu/LexUriServ/LexUriServ.do?uri=OJ:L:1999:171:0012:0016:ENDF
It does state:-
Unless proved otherwise, any lack of conformity which becomes apparent within six months of delivery of the goods shall be presumed to have existed at the time of delivery unless this presumption is incompatible with the nature of the goods or the nature of the lack of conformity.
But it does not have any text that I see where the onus is on the consumer to prove a fault was already present at purchase after a period of six months. This is an important distinction.
This site also says the same thing:-
http://www.thisismoney.co.uk/money/bills/article-1677034/Two-year-warranty-EU-law.html
This is from the second article you linked to
After six months, the burden of proof switches to the buyer and it is they who must then show a fault is due to some inherent problem, something that can be almost impossible in all but the most straightforward cases.
Seems pretty clear to me