I feel that I might be confusing the situation and i'm at a road block with my progress. I'm working within a major network that is administered by the University. Our Corporation is assigned IP addresses within the central network and we administer our own network. second -- because the Corporations network is Windows based, our IT person has no understanding of OS X and Apple computers. One of the departments that we run is a newspaper --- because it is Apple based, It exists as a micro network -- It has it's own server, printer, and terminals. however, although the network is self administered, it still uses the IP addresses assigned by the central university administration. Usually, network printers run through IP in all other networks. BUT, as i sit here trying to assign ip addresses to terminals from a list of ip addresses assigned to this department, i can account for all computers EXCEPT the printer. NOW, inorder to connect to the printer, i sit down at each computer and using the printer utility the printer is identifed on appletalk. does that mean that it is bypassing the standard IP addressing -- or am i missing something?