Say apple released a new iphone say called the iphone pro could it bypass the agreement with at&t because its technically not a iphone?
except a new contract was made then ending apple getting a cut of each subscribers bill and allowing a subsidyGuys, you've missed the easiest example of disproving this nonsense.
If that was the case AT&T would've lost exclusitivity when it was changed from 'iPhone' to 'iPhone 3G'![]()
Say apple released a new iphone say called the iphone pro could it bypass the agreement with at&t because its technically not a iphone?