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Based on what exactly? There is exactly zero information to speculate whether it's "overreach" or not. For all we know the investigation might be the result of a complaint filed by one or more companies.

We don't know yet the position of the regulator on the matter, so there is basically no "reaching" yet, let alone "overreaching".
What matter? Someone put a wet finger in the air and the regulator decided to complain. Or some EU competitor didn’t get a contract with apple because of “business as usual” in the US and they are complaining. What matter exactly is this?
 
What matter? Someone put a wet finger in the air and the regulator decided to complain. Or some EU competitor didn’t get a contract with apple because of “business as usual” in the US and they are complaining. What matter exactly is this?

No, the regulator did not decide to complain: the regulator decided to investigate and made perfectly clear in their announcement that they have not reached any conclusions yet. You are confusing the start of an investigation with a notice of regulatory violation.

If your neighbor goes to the police and claims that your assaulted him, the police is going to start an investigation. It doesn't mean they established already that you are guilty or even that a crime has actually been committed: they are simply acting upon whatever information they have been provided and try to establish whether the information is credible, what happened, whether what happened is illegal and if it seems illegal who is likely to be the culprit.

This is likely exactly the same situation: some company likely filed a complaint to the regulator and the regulator started an investigation to figure out the merits of the complaint and potential violations.

What would you have them do exactly? Ignore a complaint without investigating its merits?
 
No, the regulator did not decide to complain: the regulator decided to investigate and made perfectly clear in their announcement that they have not reached any conclusions yet. You are confusing the start of an investigation with a notice of regulatory violation.

If your neighbor goes to the police and claims that your assaulted him, the police is going to start an investigation. It doesn't mean they established already that you are guilty or even that a crime has actually been committed: they are simply acting upon whatever information they have been provided and try to establish whether the information is credible, what happened, whether what happened is illegal and if it seems illegal who is likely to be the culprit.

This is likely exactly the same situation: some company likely filed a complaint to the regulator and the regulator started an investigation to figure out the merits of the complaint and potential violations.

What would you have them do exactly? Ignore a complaint without investigating its merits?
As I said, this sounds like government overreach.
 
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As I said, this sounds like government overreach.

And I asked you, based on what exactly? Do you know whether one or more complaints were filed to the regulator and if any which information said complaints contained? Do you have any evidence that indicates that in this particular case the regulator is "overreaching"?
 
Paying a supplier for a particular model is not unusual or illegal.
Neither is it what's being investigated in this case:

"The EU's investigation will focus on exclusive sourcing obligations, exclusivity rebates and clauses requiring phone makers to inform Corning about competitive offers and accepting these offers only if Corning fails to match the price"


You're still in denial about that matter at hand (that's being alleged and investigated) here.
In spite of @bsolar having just explained it to you.
 
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Neither is it what's being investigated in this case:

"The EU's investigation will focus on exclusive sourcing obligations, exclusivity rebates and clauses requiring phone makers to inform Corning about competitive offers and accepting these offers only if Corning fails to match the price"


You're still in denial about that matter at hand (that's being alleged and investigated) here.
In spite of @bsolar having just explained it to you.
You’re in denial that in most of the business world that is standard operating procedure. Good luck in any legal action if these transactions occurred outside of the EU.
 
And I asked you, based on what exactly? Do you know whether one or more complaints were filed to the regulator and if any which information said complaints contained? Do you have any evidence that indicates that in this particular case the regulator is "overreaching"?
It seems like government overreach, especially if none of these transactions occurred within the bounds of the EU. Transactions which seem to be normal business practices across the globe.
 
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It seems like government overreach, especially if none of these transactions occurred within the bounds of the EU. Transactions which seem to be normal business practices across the globe.

Where did you get any information about the specific transactions that are being investigated? Do you have any information that suggests that there are transactions being investigated that are outside of the EU?

So far from what I have read there is zero information about the specific contracts being investigated, so if you have a source that provides those details please link it. Otherwise, you don't have any concrete information you are using to form your impression of "overreach".

Furthermore, even establishing where the transactions took place or whether the EU regulators have jurisdiction might require an investigation. The investigation might very well conclude that the complaints have no merit, but the investigation need to happen first to reach a conclusion.
 
Where did you get any information about the specific transactions that are being investigated?
From the link in the article. iPhones are mostly assembled in china and Corning and apple are US companies.
Do you have any information that suggests that there are transactions being investigated that are outside of the EU?
See above.
So far from what I have read there is zero information about the specific contracts being investigated, so if you have a source that provides those details please link it. Otherwise, you don't have any concrete information you are using to form your impression of "overreach".
Based on past history, eg the DMA id say the odds are pretty good about overreach.
Furthermore, even establishing where the transactions took place or whether the EU regulators have jurisdiction might require an investigation. The investigation might very well conclude that the complaints have no merit, but the investigation need to happen first to reach a conclusion.
Especially if no transactions occurred within the eu. Good luck.
 
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You’re in denial that in most of the business world that is standard operating procedure
It is not.

exclusive sourcing obligations … and clauses requiring (buying customers) to inform (dupplier) about competitive offers and accepting these offers only if (supplier) fails to match the price“

are not „standard operating procedure“ or „business as usual“. A company that‘s buying parts or components does not usually obligate itself to disclose their supplier of competing offerings in „most of the business world“.
 
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exclusive sourcing obligations … and clauses requiring (buying customers) to inform (dupplier) about competitive offers and accepting these offers only if (supplier) fails to match the price“

are not „standard operating procedure“ or „business as usual“.
It 100% is standard business practice for a company to ask a supplier to build an exclusive item and the supply said item exclusively.

And if none of these transactions occurred in the eu it’s clearly government overreach.
 
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It 100% is standard business practice for a company to ask a supplier to build an exclusive item and the supply said item exclusively.
You are (again) diverting to something else.

Yes, a company may ask a supplier to exclusively produce an items/components for them.

But no, a supplier does not usually contractually require their customer to buy all of their supply for (a catgory) similar products from them - nor oblige them to disclose competing offers for supply of said items. Let alone prohibit their customer from buying from a competing supplier.
 
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You are (again) diverting to something else.
That’s been my point all along. You diverted to using google as an example.
Yes, a company may ask a supplier to exclusively produce an items/components for them.

But no, a supplier does not usually contractually require their customer to buy all of their supply for (a catgory) similar products from them - nor oblige them to disclose competing offers for supply of said items. Let alone prohibit their customer from buying from a competing supplier.
But yes, a supplier can enter into an exclusive arrangement with a customer.
 
You diverted to using google as an example.
No - that was an example from U.S. case law of a dominant company whose exclusivity agreements were found anticompetitively violating antitrust law. Similar in concept to what Corning is investigated for - and demonstrating that this is not happening „only in the EU“.

But yes, a supplier can enter into an exclusive arrangement with a customer.
Again: that’s not what the case is about. It’s about a supplier demanding exclusive sourcing from the buyer.

You make and sell XY exclusively to me“ is usual business.
You agree to buy all of your supply for certain products from us and agree to disclose competing offers by other suppliers to us“ is not.

And if that supplier has a dominant market position and use such arrangements to shut out competition from the market, they are violating antitrust law.

Just like in the U.S. The FTC forewarn them.
 
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From the link in the article. iPhones are mostly assembled in china and Corning and apple are US companies.

What are you talking about? The only meaningful link in the article is the press release announcing the investigation. There is no mention of "Apple" or "iPhones" in said article, nor there is any mention of specific companies or products except for Corning.

Based on past history, eg the DMA id say the odds are pretty good about overreach.

Only if you believe the DMA is overreaching. Said that, even if you believe so, you are not evaluating this particular situation on its merits or lack thereof: you are expressing a prejudice.

Especially if no transactions occurred within the eu. Good luck.

What luck? The goal of an investigation is to determine whether there are violations and proceed with a case, or determine that there is no violation and archive the investigation. Finding no violation as outcome would not be some sort of "defeat" as you seem to paint it.

The regulators themselves made very clear that they have not made any definitive finding yet and that there is no prejudice for the investigation's outcome.
 
What are you talking about? The only meaningful link in the article is the press release announcing the investigation. There is no mention of "Apple" or "iPhones" in said article, nor there is any mention of specific companies or products except for Corning.
Who is a major consumer of Corning Gorilla Glass?
Only if you believe the DMA is overreaching. Said that, even if you believe so, you are not evaluating this particular situation on its merits or lack thereof: you are expressing a prejudice.
The EU did it to itself.
What luck? The goal of an investigation is to determine whether there are violations and proceed with a case, or determine that there is no violation and archive the investigation. Finding no violation as outcome would not be some sort of "defeat" as you seem to paint it.
What are the suspicions of the investigations, for the 1000th time?
The regulators themselves made very clear that they have not made any definitive finding yet and that there is no prejudice for the investigation's outcome.
Why are they even doing this investigation for the 1000th time?
 
No - that was an example from U.S. case law of a dominant company whose exclusivity agreements were found anticompetitively violating antitrust law. Similar in concept to what Corning is investigated for - and demonstrating that this is not happening „only in the EU“.
There is no similar in concept here.
Again: that’s not what the case is about. It’s about a supplier demanding exclusive sourcing from the buyer.
Which buyer?
You make and sell XY exclusively to me“ is usual business.
You agree to buy all of your supply for certain products from us and agree to disclose competing offers by other suppliers to us“ is not.

And if that supplier has a dominant market position and use such arrangements to shut out competition from the market, they are violating antitrust law.

Just like in the U.S. The FTC forewarn them.
Corning does not produce Gorilla glass in the EU and I don't feel like looking up their revenue from EU operations, but yeah as I said, good luck with this.
 
You're in denial about how business is conducted
No, I've said clearly stated how I know and believe it is.

Strawmen such as "paying a supplier", "building an exclusive item" and supplying it exclusively, or a generic "exclusive arrangement" are "business as usual". But the alleged misconduct is not. Despite it having clearly been pointed out to you, you have reeatedly to refused to engage with or acknowledge it:

  • Do suppliers contractually prohibit their paying customers to buy from competitors?
  • Do suppliers oblige their customers to disclose offers from competing suppliers to them?
👉 No, that is not usual or normal business conduct or "standard operating procedure".

Especially not when you're a dominant undertaking in a market, and intended to shut out the competition. Which it is illegal per US and European competition law.
 
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Who is a major consumer of Corning Gorilla Glass?

How do you even know which consumer is relevant to the investigation? Do you have information on which consumer has an exclusivity sourcing deal with Corning where they accept to source from Corning exclusively?

The EU did it to itself.

I don't understand what this is supposed to mean.

What are the suspicions of the investigations, for the 1000th time?

Employment of exclusivity deals to limit competition. And again:
  • We don't know which specific deals with which specific companies are being taken into account.
  • We don't know whether the investigation will find any wrongdoing.
  • If the investigation finds wrongdoing, we don't know the evidence that supports such conclusion.
 
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There is no similar in concept here.

The US have basically the same concept (emphasis mine):

Exclusive dealing or requirements contracts between manufacturers and retailers are common and are generally lawful. In simple terms, an exclusive dealing contract prevents a distributor from selling the products of a different manufacturer, and a requirements contract prevents a manufacturer from buying inputs from a different supplier. These arrangements are judged under a rule of reason standard, which balances any procompetitive and anticompetitive effects.

Further in the article:

Most exclusive dealing contracts are beneficial because they encourage marketing support for the manufacturer's brand.

On the other hand, a manufacturer with market power may potentially use these types of vertical arrangements to prevent smaller competitors from succeeding in the marketplace.

That's basically the same rationale found in the EU article I provided before.
 
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