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The lack of mobile specific area codes allow us to take our phone numbers from a landline phone to a cell phone, and I appreciate that I could do that.

In the UK if you're calling from a landline it costs more to ring a mobile than another landline, also if you're on a PAYG mobile (unless, in most cases, you're ringing someone on the same carrier). Many people therefore will ring your landline rather than your mobile.

Is that not the case in the US? Just wondered. If it's the same, how do people know, if they don't know the person, whether they're ringing a landline or a mobile?

Do you have to pay to receive calls on landlines as well or just mobiles?
 
If it's the same, how do people know, if they don't know the person, whether they're ringing a landline or a mobile?

It's not the same. It costs the same to call a landline or a mobile. An when you make a call to someone, you don't know if it's a mobile or not.

Do you have to pay to receive calls on landlines as well or just mobiles?

You have to pay to receive calls from either one.
 
Is that not the case in the US? Just wondered. If it's the same, how do people know, if they don't know the person, whether they're ringing a landline or a mobile?

Do you have to pay to receive calls on landlines as well or just mobiles?

It doesn't matter in the US whether you are calling a landline or a mobile, the costs are the same to the caller. If you call a local landline or a local mobile, same cost. If you call a long-distance number, it just uses your standard minutes, no additional charges (unless you have some real crap plan). Calling long distance from a landline usually has additional charges associated.

It does not cost anything at all to receive a call on a landline (other than of course paying to have the landline in the first place).
 
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