So why have only civil charges been filed for somebody stealing so much? Oh, he has a white collar. And it is stealing - he made money from buying and selling stocks, which means somebody else lost money. But hey, it's white collar, so it must be a 'victimless' crime, right?
I do understand that if the guy is guilty he should be made to pay back money, but I also think there should just as severe personal consequences for this kind of theft as blue collar theft. The prisons should be the same as well.
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The fact this is a civil suit has nothing to do with any of that. With insider trading, civil suits are easier for the government to win, because they don’t have to prove criminal intent. Also, the evidence of criminal intent, if any, is often adduced as the result of discovery in the civil action. So, the SEC usually initiates a civil action first. If, along the way, sufficient evidence arises to initiate a criminal proceeding, that would follow.