Triple Play without anyone touching the ball

Discussion in 'Community Discussion' started by BigPrince, May 11, 2007.

  1. BigPrince macrumors 68020

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    #1
    "Two men on base. Batters hits an infield fly...he is out. Man on first accidentally runs past the runner on second. He is out. The man on second gets hit by the ball while off base. He is out. Triple Play. However, who gets credited?

    Exactly correct. The shortshop gets credited for all three outs though he never touched the ball, as the fielder closest to each play."


    Now I know its POSSIBLE, but has this actually ever occurred. I believed it did at one point and told someone it did and I would send them a link, but now I can't find anything on it. Any help?
     
  2. MacNut macrumors Core

    MacNut

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    #2
    It would go to the person who caught the infield fly, or if the ball was never caught the person who first picked up the ball.

    This is the only thing close that I found.
     
  3. xsedrinam macrumors 601

    xsedrinam

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    #3
    I've never heard of such a triple play. The unassisted triple play is more uncommon (13) in modern day MLB, (1) disputed in the 19th century, than a perfect game (17). Troy Tulowitzki's unassisted in April was the 14th.

    Anyway, how could no one touch the ball (fielder) and the guy on second be ruled out for the ball hitting him? Isn't it a dead ball? But if he touches the ball albeit inadverently, the ball's still touched. And if a fielder actually catches the infield fly, then it's no longer a triple play with no one touching the ball.
     
  4. MacNut macrumors Core

    MacNut

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    #4
    I don't think it happened or would even be called a legal play.

    If it happened it would be here...http://tripleplays.sabr.org/tp_distinct.htm

    The way I understand the rule is that if a runner touches the ball he is out, but then the ball is dead and the other runner goes back. But the rule is also that if the lead runner is passed by the other runner the passing runner is out. In the infield fly rule the runner that hit the ball is out automatically.

    If the ball is never fielded tho I don't know how they would score the play. Would it even count?
     
  5. MacNut macrumors Core

    MacNut

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    #5
    Ok this might help,
    If the ump rules it a triple play nobody would get the assist as nobody touched the ball. It would go as a runner violation.
     
  6. BigPrince thread starter macrumors 68020

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  7. IJ Reilly macrumors P6

    IJ Reilly

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    #7
    This is a classic baseball riddle. The person who first posed it to me said that he thought maybe it had occurred once in the minor leagues. Probably everything in baseball has happened at least once somewhere, but this one has apparently never occurred anywhere in the major leagues.
     
  8. MacNut macrumors Core

    MacNut

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    #8
    I think that is one of those plays that baseball hopes never happens as they don't have an answer. I would hate to be the official scorer during that play.
     
  9. wPod macrumors 68000

    wPod

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    #9
    i have never heard of this happening, although recently here in CO there was an unassisted tripple play (ie the shortstop single handedly made a tripple play)

    http://www.denverpost.com/search/ci_5780811

    apparently only the 12th in the history of baseball.

    but the point of the infield fly rule is to limit the number of players which can be called out. basically once the batter is called out, the play is over and the runners have to return to the bases they started at. this way the fielder doesnt intentially 'miss' the pop fly in order to pick it off the ground to make a double, or tripple play.
     
  10. MacNut macrumors Core

    MacNut

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    #10
    The runners can move at their own risk
     
  11. lord patton macrumors 65816

    lord patton

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    #11
    Off topic, but which is more uncommon, a perfect game, or a no-hitter in which the pitcher faces the minimum 27 batters?
     
  12. MacNut macrumors Core

    MacNut

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  13. xsedrinam macrumors 601

    xsedrinam

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    #13
    That I've read, 233 no-hitters have been thrown in major league history. Only 17 of those 233 were perfect games, since a perfect game would also be a "no-no".

    MacNut's quick.....for a babe. :p
     
  14. MacNut macrumors Core

    MacNut

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    #14
    A perfect game is harder because it means no runners get on base. A no hitter means no hits but a batter got a walk. A no hitter would mean that more then 27 batters get to the plate.
     
  15. lord patton macrumors 65816

    lord patton

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    #15
    no no no. Like what happened in Chicago a couple of weeks ago. Mark Buehrle threw a no-hitter, one man walked, but Buehrle picked him off first. So he faced 27 hitters.

    I know this has happened before, and sometimes the pitchers will even get listed under the perfect game heading, albeit with an asterick.

    I would guess this is even more uncommon than a perfect game, but I don't know for sure, hence the question.

    In other trivia, anyone know what the most strike outs in (half of) an inning are? It's more than three.
     
  16. IJ Reilly macrumors P6

    IJ Reilly

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    #16
    Any number of walked batters could be erased in double plays, and the pitcher not face over the minimum. Technically, not a perfect game, though.
     
  17. IJ Reilly macrumors P6

    IJ Reilly

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    #17
    I know a number have struck out four. More than four is awfully unlikely, since the catcher must drop strike three and the runner reach first safely. If first is occupied the batter isn't eligible to run.

    Edit: Found the information. No pitcher has struck out more than four batters in an inning in a major league game. However Joe Niekro once struck out five in an exhibition game in 1977. Figures it had to be a knuckle-baller. Several minor league pitchers have managed this freakish feat, most recently, Kelly Wunsch in 1994, when he was pitching for the Beloit Brewers. (He pitched for the Dodgers a couple of seasons ago.)
     

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