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Why is 2.7 GHz $250 more than 2.6?

terraphantm said:
Well that's not a good analogy. If the mid-range model (335i) offered 99% of the performance of the top end model (M3) and was manufactured with the exact same components, then that'd be a valid analogy. But that's not the case. In reality, you'd need quite a few modifications for a 335 to match an M3, and even then the experience is never really the same.


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Somewhat valid response TP, but had you read mine more carefully I did say:

"..if you buy a 'high end' BMW the costs Add Up pretty quickly with minor additions.. "

~ intended meaning was items within the group; and yes, a M3 is a fair bit MORE high end than a 335, to me at least.. of course a Macbook/ Macbook Air/ Macbook Pro have advantages to each, as does a 335i/M3..

Just trying to say 'computers/ cars/ leather couches/ watches/ pizzas' pretty much any item has a similar up-charge to go from 'pretty darn good' to the top end of the group.. Not trying to say anything more..

Some folks just have to say the HAVE The Best, and you pay for it.. almost always!! :)
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Here's the real question: is it the exact same chip, except slightly overclocked?

Apple has done this in the past...
 
Because the yield rate on each wafer for those chips is lower, so they cost more to make. Therefore, Intel charge more. I remember the last time I looked at the price difference and found that Apple where pretty much just passing on the cost from Intel without adding on any real mark-up.
 
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