Patent misuse is defined by 35 USC 271:
I did read that article. Note that it talks only about ONE of the 20 patents that Apple is asserting. Second, the article goes around and around talking about efficiency or inefficiency, and doesn't actually apply the simple test that will determine whether this particular patent is infringed. All one has to do is look at the claims of the patent. Here's one, for example:
Well, it's been a few hours since I've read the article, but as I recall it was talking about the inefficiency vs. efficiency to more clearly illustrate the technical differences as far as how it actually works. I could be mistaken. We'll have to see what happens I guess.
The whole point of a patent is to grant a limited, 20-year monopoly.
If this is true, why did the gvmt. go after Microsoft for having an alleged Monopoly? Certainly that period of time was within 20 years from the time they would have patented any of their technology. Is it because that beef was about software, which is not patentable?