Only if you are ignorant of the difference.
Only if you can explain why the difference matters.
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You have zero evidence that she wasn't biased but what we do have are statements made pre-trial that illustrate a potential bias. The very appearance of bias is in the judicial system is not to be tolerated. You know, the whole recusal thing. I'm not saying the judge wanted Apple to lose the case and that she wanted to punish them, only that it appears she may have already made up her mind, at least on some of the issues, before the trial began. That, and the fact that she oversaw the settlement cases with the publishers--which you've even admitted appears to be a preponderance to Apple's guilt--is a slippery slope for an impartial judge.
Again the deja vu thing. You could substitute "Microsoft" for "Apple" in this statement and it would be 1999 all over again. Then as now, accusations of this kind require actual evidence and unfortunately for your argument the evidence supports a rather different conclusion. I suppose I have to remind you again that this judge did not support the DoJ's remedy and substituted a much milder one of her own. But that's the great thing about conspiracy theories -- they don't require any evidence, only belief.
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I guess the disagreement comes from the difference between the technical legal sense of "guilty" vs the layman sense. Apple was not found guilty in the legal sense, but I think the poster is actually meaning that they were found guilty in the layman sense.
Yes, in the conventional sense, not the legalistic one. Guilty, as in having been found to have done an illegal thing. I suppose I am meant to be going round and round in circles over this bit of semantics so the basic point that Apple lost their case in a court of law can be avoided.