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You apparently don’t know what legal precedent means. There has never been any case where a patent lawsuit was dismissed on the basis that the defendant merely was a user of the product and didn’t make it, sell it, etc. Never. Not once. Bluewave was not dismissed on that basis, either. The fact that bluewave was not dismissed on that basis is, in fact, precedent.
Please quote me the proof where Bluewave was awarded damages in that case you gave as your one and only sole example.

If you can't give that proof, you have no argument. I'm waiting.

There are thousands of cases where damages have been awarded to corporations due to other corporations infringing on their patents. Yet your only argument has to do with consumer purchases, of which you can't even identify a single case where damages were awarded, and yet you still try to claim your argument isn't fallacious; hilarious.
 
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Please quote me the proof where Bluewave was awarded damages in that case you gave as your one and only sole example.

If you can't give that proof, you have no argument. I'm waiting.

Strawman. I didn’t say they were awarded damages. I said the case was not dismissed on the basis that they were merely a customer, and no patent case ever has been. I also cited numerous other cases filed by two plaintiffs, and provided a link to an academic paper that lists many many more such cases.

Here’s another paper that discusses, in depth, patent lawsuits against “end users” like you and me:


In fact, there is, in patent law, a doctrine called the “customer suit exception.” It means that, for example, if someone sued YOU for using an iPhone, Apple could intervene, and the suit against you would be stayed (delayed) until the suit involving apple is decided. The rationale behind this is that Apple is in a better position to defend the suit than you, and if it wins, then you are off the hook anyway. However, if Apple loses, guess what - you are still on the hook, the lawsuit against you resumes, and you can prove your innocence if you can.

The existence of this doctrine is only necessary precisely because lawsuits against end users are perfectly legitimate.

By the way, since you don’t seem to understand how precedent works, here’s a case where the court found that the customer could infringe merely by operating the allegedly infringing product: JoeScan, Inc. v. LMI Techs., Inc., No. C07-5323, 2007 WL 2572296. Here’s another: Zemel Bros. v. Dewey Elecs. Corp., 218 U.S.P.Q. (BNA) 722, 724 (N.D.N.Y. 1982). Another case where a court let a suit against customers go ahead: Privasys, Inc. v. Visa Int’l , No. C 07-03257 SI, 2007 WL 3461761 (N.D. Cal. Nov. 14, 2007)


There are doubtless hundreds of such cases.
 
Strawman. I didn’t say they were awarded damages. I said the case was not dismissed on the basis that they were merely a customer, and no patent case ever has been. I also cited numerous other cases filed by two plaintiffs, and provided a link to an academic paper that lists many many more such cases.

Here’s another paper that discusses, in depth, patent lawsuits against “end users” like you and me:


In fact, there is, in patent law, a doctrine called the “customer suit exception.” It means that, for example, if someone sued YOU for using an iPhone, Apple could intervene, and the suit against you would be stayed (delayed) until the suit involving apple is decided. The rationale behind this is that Apple is in a better position to defend the suit than you, and if it wins, then you are off the hook anyway. However, if Apple loses, guess what - you are still on the hook, the lawsuit against you resumes, and you can prove your innocence if you can.

The existence of this doctrine is only necessary precisely because lawsuits against end users are perfectly legitimate.

By the way, since you don’t seem to understand how precedent works, here’s a case where the court found that the customer could infringe merely by operating the allegedly infringing product: JoeScan, Inc. v. LMI Techs., Inc., No. C07-5323, 2007 WL 2572296. Here’s another: Zemel Bros. v. Dewey Elecs. Corp., 218 U.S.P.Q. (BNA) 722, 724 (N.D.N.Y. 1982). Another case where a court let a suit against customers go ahead: Privasys, Inc. v. Visa Int’l , No. C 07-03257 SI, 2007 WL 3461761 (N.D. Cal. Nov. 14, 2007)


There are doubtless hundreds of such cases.
There are thousands of cases where damages have been awarded to corporations due to other corporations infringing on their patents. Yet your only argument has to do with consumer purchases, of which you can't even identify a single case where damages were awarded, and yet you still try to claim your argument isn't fallacious; hilarious.

The existence of this doctrine is only necessary precisely because lawsuits against end users are perfectly legitimate.
Yet you can't even find a single example of a court awarding damages. 🙄
 
There are thousands of cases where damages have been awarded to corporations due to other corporations infringing on their patents. Yet your only argument has to do with consumer purchases, of which you can't even identify a single case where damages were awarded, and yet you still try to claim your argument isn't fallacious; hilarious.


Yet you can't even find a single example of a court awarding damages. 🙄
(1) these were not just corporations
(2) damages were awarded in some of these cases, where the patents were found to be infringed and valid
(3) in 99% of patent cases, there are no damages because the case settles, so in a lot of these cases, as the academic papers explicitly state, the customer ends up paying the patentee.
(4) It costs hundreds of dollars to sue someone for patent infringement - just to file the papers. The damages would typically be around 2% of the value of the device. Obviously nobody is going to sue you for merely using an iphone - they’d lose money on the deal. That is far different than saying they COULDN’T sue you.

Of course all of this is just a distraction. You say patent infringement is stealing. I say it is not. I explain why it is not by pointing out that merely using an infringing device is infringing. A lawyer has already posted here explaining I am right and you are wrong. But you insist on trying to distract by moving the bar. Cite precedent. So I do. That’s not precedent. So I explain why it is, then find more. That’s different. I show why it’s not. You keep moving the bar. Because you are wrong.
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There are thousands of cases where damages have been awarded to corporations due to other corporations infringing on their patents. Yet your only argument has to do with consumer purchases, of which you can't even identify a single case where damages were awarded, and yet you still try to claim your argument isn't fallacious; hilarious.


Yet you can't even find a single example of a court awarding damages. 🙄
By the way, here‘s one more paper.

Read it carefully. You are wrong.

 
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You didn’t notice that one of the posts was from a lawyer? Ok.
Carnegie did not claim to be a lawyer, you literally made that up.

Your argument has been disingenuous from the start, based on your own silly definition of theft, and you are well aware of that, hence why you are so defensive over this whole waste of time discussion.
 
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