Yet Apple knows full well that charging a percentage of product price has been standard cellular FRAND licensing for over two decades.
Apple itself is no stranger to the idea of charging a percentage of profits gained by using one's technology.
Is it also unfair that Apple charges higher priced apps a higher royalty, even though the same storage and download costs exist as for free apps?
Is it also unfair that Apple charges banks a percentage of each Apple Pay purchase, even though the chips and software being used have already been bought by a user at a high profit to Apple?
Nope, that never happens. Apple has no license from Qualcomm, and thus does not directly pay royalties themselves.
Qualcomm instead has a license agreement with Foxconn and the other iPhone assembly companies. The licenses cover many phone brands and predate Apple's iPhone. Those assembly companies pay a royalty for building devices which include 2G/3G/4G tech invented by Qualcomm.
And it's the same percentage whether it's an Apple or Moto phone, or whether it uses an Intel or Qualcomm or MediaTek modem. That's the fair and non-discriminatory parts of FRAND.
What Apple means by their disingenuous use of "double dip", is simply that the royalty Foxconn pays (and passes on to Apple) is higher for higher value iPhones. But see next response, because it's not based on anywhere near as much as Apple's retail or even wholesale prices. If anything, Apple has been getting by like a bandit for a decade by not paying on the full price.
Qualcomm's rates are well known, as hundreds of companies currently have licenses, all using the same basic terms, which is what FRAND requires. They charge ~3.25% of the device price.
However, in this case that means the price that Foxconn charges Apple for a boxed iPhone ready for Apple to make hundreds of dollars in profit from (something they could not do without using Qualcomm patents).
Analysts estimate that Foxconn charges Apple about $245 per phone, so the royalty would be about $8. And that's for thousands of essential patents without which the iPhone would only be an iPod.
Interestingly, Apple wanted that much per device from Samsung for just three Apple patents that ended up either being worked around or no longer used, like slide to unlock. In other words, non essential patents.
Apple is simply once again making its usual claim that its patents are worth tons, while everyone else's are worth mere pennies. It's just business, in the pursuit of higher profits. It's not like Apple would lower the price by $5 if they got a better royalty rate.
We've discussed the royalty base issue a number of times, so I won't go much into that here. But, again, the Federal Circuit has been clear on that issue and Qualcomm can't require that a would-be licensee agree to pay royalties (for FRAND-obliged patents) based on the entire market value of products. If a would-be licensee wants to do that, that's fine. But Qualcomm can't refuse to grant licenses because they won't agree to do that.
We've also discussed the per phone size of the royalties that Apple pays, so I won't get much into that here either. But the $245 per phone number, if it's meant to be an average, isn't accurate. We can say that with considerable confidence given what Apple reports.
Those things said, I'd like to respond to this:
Nope, that never happens. Apple has no license from Qualcomm, and thus does not directly pay royalties themselves.
Qualcomm instead has a license agreement with Foxconn and the other iPhone assembly companies. The licenses cover many phone brands and predate Apple's iPhone. Those assembly companies pay a royalty for building devices which include 2G/3G/4G tech invented by Qualcomm.
And it's the same percentage whether it's an Apple or Moto phone, or whether it uses an Intel or Qualcomm or MediaTek modem. That's the fair and non-discriminatory parts of FRAND.
What Apple means by their disingenuous use of "double dip", is simply that the royalty Foxconn pays (and passes on to Apple) is higher for higher value iPhones. But see next response, because it's not based on anywhere near as much as Apple's retail or even wholesale prices. If anything, Apple has been getting by like a bandit for a decade by not paying on the full price.
That is not what Apple means when it refers to Qualcomm double-dipping. We may disagree with Apple when it comes to the propriety of what it is (and others are) accusing Qualcomm of - whether it, e.g., is contrary to general patent law - but we should at least be clear about what those accusations are.
The double dipping that Apple is referring to is Qualcomm requiring Apple (through its contract manufacturers, of course) to pay licensing fees in addition to buying chipsets (which incorporate the technology which those licensing fees are supposedly for) from Qualcomm. The first sale doctrine means that, in buying those chipsets from Qualcomm, Qualcomm's patent rights are exhausted and it has no right to collect further licensing fees based on the technology within them. Apple alleges, as do others, that Qualcomm requires it (or its contract manufacturers, of course) to agree to (improper) separate licensing terms or else Qualcomm won't sell chipsets to Apple. Qualcomm is then paid for the chipsets
and paid licensing fees. That's the core of the double-dipping accusation.
The higher royalties being paid because of the cost of iPhones being higher is a different issue, one of several other issues.
Connected with the double-dipping that I just described, is the issue of Apple having to pay licensing fees to Qualcomm even if it buys chipsets from Intel. Part of the problem is that Qualcomm - according to numerous parties, and as suggested by its own SEC filings - refuses to grant exhaustive licenses to chipset competitors such as Intel and Samsung. Those competitors have tried to get licenses from Qualcomm, and Qualcomm is supposed to grant them - that's part of its FRAND commitments. The way it should work is, those competitors would get licenses from Qualcomm (on FRAND terms) and then sell their chipsets (incorporating Qualcomm's SEPs) to the likes of Apple. Apple would then not need to pay Qualcomm any licensing fees for devices which use those chipsets purchased from Qualcomm's competitors. As it has been, Qualcomm has been requiring Apple (again, through its contract manufacturers) to pay it licensing fees even if Apple buys chipsets from, e.g., Intel. There are a number of reasons why Qualcomm won't license Intel and others, but one is that it wouldn't have the leverage to force them to agree to the high royalties it wants. (I'll go into why that's the case if anyone is interested.)
Further, you have the issue of Qualcomm not only making Apple pay royalties when it buys chipsets from Intel (which it shouldn't have to do as Intel should be able to get its own licenses) but effectively making Apple pay more in royalties if it buys chipsets from Intel rather than from Qualcomm. The accusation is that Qualcomm demands a higher than reasonable royalty, but then agrees to refund part of it if Apple buys chipsets from Qualcomm. So if Apple buys chipsets from Qualcomm's competitors, it has to pay more for the licensing rights. That aspect of Qualcomm's practices is likely also not FRAND-compliant. And it has the effect of discouraging companies like Apple from giving chipset business to Qualcomm's competitors; it artificially raises the effective price of Qualcomm's competitors' chipsets. There are multiple levels of wrong-doing involved even in just this particular aspect of the allegations made against Qualcomm.
At any rate, the main point I wanted to make is that the double-dipping that Apple accuses Qualcomm of is not what you are saying it is. Apple's filings make that clear, they spell out what Apple is alleging. Perhaps some will think the double-dipping in question is appropriate. If so, fair enough. But let's at least understand what the issue is. We should also understand that the Supreme Court has now made it clear that a patent holder is not, under patent law, entitled to collect royalties on patented items which it has already chosen to sell and it isn't, under patent law, allowed to place conditions on what may be done with them after it has sold them. That is to say, once a patent holder sells a patented item, further use of that item - to include reselling it - is not infringement, regardless of what conditions the patent holder may have placed on its original sale. If Apple (or, e.g., Foxconn) buys chipsets from Qualcomm, it isn't infringing Qualcomm's patents (which are incorporated in those chipsets) by putting them in iPhones and then selling those iPhones.