How do you justify this? If you willingly violate the TOS in an effort to not have a sub that is theft.
Example for you: Apple, as part of the MacOS TOS, states that it cannot be used on non-Apple hardware which makes all hackintosh users thieves, agree or not?
A hackintosh user who paid for their license and violated the terms of service may have violated potential civil contract, but they have no violated any law. There is no criminality. And calling it "theft" is very specific in the means of taking something without paying for it, and depriving the original owner of it.
In the case we're talking about. None of the required definitions of Theft is actually happening.
The Criminal Code of Canada outlines theft as:
Every one commits theft who fraudulently and without colour of right takes, or fraudulently and without colour of right converts to his use or to the use of another person, anything, whether animate or inanimate, with intent
- (a) to deprive, temporarily or absolutely, the owner of it, or a person who has a special property or interest in it, of the thing or of his property or interest in it;
- (b) to pledge it or deposit it as security;
- (c) to part with it under a condition with respect to its return that the person who parts with it may be unable to perform; or
- (d) to deal with it in such a manner that it cannot be restored in the condition in which it was at the time it was taken or converted.
Paying for the right to stream 5 streams, and using all those streams, even in different households does not meet any level of theft.
Violation of Terms of Service doesn't escalate to a criminal matter, nor does it meet the requirements for Theft. Terms of Services and EULA's fall under contract law, which is not theft. Continuing to try to call this "Theft" is plain and simple asinine as it's trying to paint the behaviour in a light that implies criminality.
Since we're no longer talking about Criminal law as well, we can only talk about business law. And ToS and EULA's all also must adhere to any legal requirements of their region. Including Good Faith application of those ToS. (Called Duty of honest Contactual Performance here, or part of the Uniform Commercial Code in the USA)
I absolutely would contend that Netflix changing what they're currently allowing for "per household" to "per IP" would absolutely violate the good faith implied covenant of fair dealing.
Basically, Because NETFLIX has not ever defined in the ToS clearly up front that 1 house hold can only equal 1 IP address, and one Physical location, trying to change the TOS now to enforce that, would not be good faith dealing and would likely not hold up as defensible in court.
And like I said earlier. If Netflix does change their ToS to say that? Than I will be one of many who votes with our wallets and gives Netflix $0 in return and takes our business elswhere.