But I thought of an idea that I'd like some sharpshooters to knock down. Scenario: 1. I plan on working ~10 more years (60k+ a year) before retiring on a state pension (and later adding Social Security to that). 2. My wife is retired with about $150,000 left from an inheritance (it's California. I understand that's my money too.) She'll be eligible for Social Security in one year, though it won't be a very large amount. 3. I need to make a home repair that would require a loan. (I owe 39k on the house and should have it paid off in 4 years.) The idea: Use my wife as the source of the loan. She'll get a return on a portion of her inheritance, increasing the length that it will sustain her, and I get an instant loan without any hassles or fees. Why not pay my wife instead of a bank? What am I missing here?