You are just arguing semantics. The judge said that Apple was entitled to ask its customers to purchase OS X only for use on Macs as part of his legal rational for dismissing Psystar's counterclaims. He wasn't saying that Apple was allowed to say "Pretty please", he was saying that Apple has a legal right to do so.
You're one to talk about logic. A judge said Apple has the right to ASK something of its customers. I have a legal right to ASK you for the time of day. That's not binding. It's not based on any law. Apple can ASK me to buy something from them all day long, and I can in return tell them "No thanks."
As I said, the question is whether it is possible to install OS X on non-Macs without creating a derivative work.
Yes, it is.
Whether the code is modified by the bootloader or manually by the customer is irrelevant.
The code isn't modified by either
Unless you have the legal and technical knowledge to verify that no relevant code is modified, you can't make a definitive claim about the legality of a personal hackintosh.
Neither can you. Meanwhile, I'll gladly take my Hackintosh into any police station or courtroom, and explain to the judge or cops how to make one themselves. Why? Because absolutely NO law has been broken. There's not a legislative body in the world that gives a good crap about it. And no, despite your wishes for it, corporations aren't legislative bodies.
You are making a copy by installing it.
Which is what the OS is designed to do. It's why I gave Apple money. That's not an illegal copy which is what we'd be talking about if any of this were about pirating. It isn't.
You are also making copies by loading the programs into RAM.
So what? Again, all of these things are true of Mac owners as well. Your 'argument' makes no sense. I would love to see it in court though, against a consumer. "You're charged with having an operating system load in RAM which is making a copy!" The laughter would be comedy gold!
Making exact copies, adaptations, and derivative works are all subject to different rules. Audio recordings and computer software also have different rules.
Microsoft doesn't like that people can get WINE for Linux and run copies of Microsoft Office for Windows. They'd prefer everyone had to buy Windows to run Office for Windows. But guess what, they can't do SQUAT about it, because it's NOT ILLEGAL. There's nothing they can put in an EULA that changes that fact either.
Again, I know this is a difficult concept for you-- CORPORATIONS AREN'T LEGISLATIVE BODIES, and just because they say to you "You can't do this because we don't like it" doesn't make it legally binding. That you'd want to surrender your actual rights to the whim of corporations is just your own shortsightedness because you don't like the fact that Apple's OS can be installed on hardware other than Apple. Oh well. Doesn't change actual laws though and what's illegal and what isn't.
Microsoft has different pricing for upgrades and full installs. Are you claiming that they should not be able to offer upgrade pricing?
That doesn't even make sense and of course has nothing to do with anything we're talking about.
Of course there is a penalty for breaking a contract. Contract law is extensive. Are you actually claiming that contracts are completely uneforceable?
Apple doesn't even agree with you here! Fascinating. GO READ THE EULA! Apple clearly acknowledges that ACTUAL legal bodies can find things in the 'contract' unenforceable. Things like, trying to dictate the brand of hardware a consumer buys. As has been stated here a million times, but flies right over your head, is that companies can and often do put language in a EULA that isn't actually covered by copyright, and isn't enforceable. An EULA could state you must stand on your head while using the software. So would you? And the penalty for you not doing so is... what exactly? Being sent to bed without your supper?
Ironically, you are basing this claim on the license that you claim has no basis in law.
I never said that, I said there are parts of it (dictating my hardware brand namely) that have no basis in actual law. You've yet to show me a law that says any company can dictate that I buy another product from them (hardware), simply because I bought another one (an OS).
It depends on the situation. I've already cited an applicable law several times, but you seem to ignore all the pieces of the law that contradict you.
No you haven't. You've yet to cite a law that says Apple can legally dictate the brand of hardware I run their OS on. If so, please show it, cite the actual relevant clause, and then tell me what the penalty is for disobeying it. You haven't. You can't. Because no such law exists.
That's not true. You do have rights to create copies based on the specific limitations to the copyright owner's exclusive right as described in copyright law. Fair use, etc. Including specifically the right to install a computer program.
Exactly. In the case of an OS, I have the right to install it on one machine per copy purchased. Unfortunately for Apple (and its hallmonitor wannabes) they have no legal right to dictate the BRAND of that hardware. I can't legally install multiple copies (unless I get the family version) but I can install one per machine. That's USING the product for what it was intended for.
All of your arguments would make sense if Apple didn't have a retail version of its OS, and one could only get it through buying a Mac. But they
do sell a retail version of their OS that they charge REAL money for. Therefore, they don't get to claim all the rights and the consumer none. The consumer has rights too in a transaction, and a real 'contract' isn't only one-way. That's what the hallmonitor brigade is missing.