Good Post, Tulse. I think these definitions help Nick, rather than hurt him, however. The key words are "without express consent" and "improper means".
The person who acquired the trade secrets probably did not do so through "improper means" (i.e. Hacking a computer, stealing from the dumpster, hiding in an air duct over the boardroom

, etc.). This person most likely had proper access to the info. Now giving that info to Nick is of course a violation of his NDA, but Nick has no NDA with Apple. So, it seems as though Apple would have to prove that Nick knew his informant was improperly acquiring this info (again, stealing), and that seems like a difficult thing to prove. After all, it would be pretty easy for Nick to assert that he believed his guy had acquired the info through proper means, which I'm sure many high-level Apple employees could do.
Under 2, it says you are in trouble if you used the disclosure "without express/implied consent" by a person under conditions A-B i-iii. But Nick does have implied, if not express consent, from these people/person who submitted the info.
So with these bases clear (and at least I think they are), I believe it to be a first amendment issue. And I believe that Nick will be protected under that that amendment.
The only caveat would be if Nick paid his informants, which would be a criminal activity. And just to add some fuel, I don't think that a scenario like this is too far out there. Think about it. Nick pays informant --> Nick gets secrets --> Nick posts secrets on website --> Traffic comes to Nicks website to view secrets --> Companies pay Nick to advertise to said traffic ---> Nick makes money.
Do I think that this was the case? Probably not, but it wouldn't be earth-shattering if it was.
As more details emerge, this one should get interesting.