We are talking about regression to the mean right? Can the original mr article do a better job in explaining how this applies to apple? Am I the only one here who doesn't quite grasp this while the others go on their merry way debating something that isn't clear to begin with?
If it's all just a "all a bit of a theoretical exercise, of course" then does the theory hold ground here or is it for show? What kind of theoretical exercise, is a bit of a theoretical one, instead of a full on theoretical one? 🙄
Sure values regress to their mean, but no one really knows what that mean is with certainty, that's the whole point. But what does that have to do with apple growing even larger? It's size might spur even more growth...But that's all down to global financial conditions, brand name, competing products, iOS and os x design choices, economies of scale, etc.
In this bit of a theoretical exersice I fail to see how a mathematical theorem is more than just window dressing to make a point as unclear as the application of the theory behind it. People could have claimed that apple would regress to the mean back when the stock was at $350, apparently the mean was higher...
Anyway...just saying...