I agree with the "British English" being the more correct version since it is the "original" one (I'm from Canada btw). One might also note however that when British singers sing, their accent is gone. But, I think the ungrammatical correctness is due to the evolution of the language. It's much easier to say "That's the lamest thing I've ever heard of" than, "That is the lamest thing of which I have ever heard" (since one is not supposed to end a sentence with a preposition). It's also due to the English language itself which has borrowed words from many other languages making the structure less "robust". Unlike English, French (which I'm studying) is much more conservative and the whole language would fall apart and be really awkward if one were to end a sentence with a preposition for example.
I think your whole "original" argument has been blown out of the water by numerous other posters, so I won't talk about that. I just wanted to note my surprise that this is still being said despite lots of evidence to the contrary posted above.
I did want to comment on the false rule that you can't end a sentence with a preposition. It's not an English rule, it's a Latin rule, brought over to the English language by linguist snobs in the 17th and 18th centuries. They were trying to make English "better" by making it conform to a "better" language. As Winston Churchill famously said, "This is the sort of English up with which I will not put."
And to continue further, I think it's silly to prefer either American or British English as better because of irrelevant things such as which is the "original" or who follows prescriptive "rules" more. If you prefer one or the other, it shouldn't be based on such arbitrary judgments. What are you using as a reference point to say which is more "correct"?
I prefer American English because of stylistic reasons. I think that American English is much more standardized in terms of pronunciation and spelling. I think that if you pronounce "schedule" with an sh at the beginning, then you should pronounce "school" the same way. And correct me if I'm wrong (and I might be), but I'm pretty sure the last syllables of "honor" and "regulator" are pronounced the same way, yet the British spell one "-our" and the other "-or." And again, why do the British use the French spelling of "liter" ("litre") and not the French spelling of "letter" ("lettre")?
I also prefer American English due to its greater maintenance of the subjunctive, which I feel is stylistically better. Borrowing the example from the Wikipedia article, a brit would more likely say, "They suggested that he should apply for the job," instead of, "They suggested that he apply for the job." Although to be fair, the subjunctive is tragically in decline on both sides of the pond. If only the English-speaking populace were more interested in diction...