So, I have a story for everyone, even though I know the internet is full of them.
Long story short, I sold an iPhone about two weeks ago on ebay, the stock AT&T model iPhone 4 running iOS 5. I even wrote that it was an AT&T iPhone.
The buyer bought it and messaged me, saying he was unable to activate the phone with T-Mobile. I told him that it was clearly listed as an AT&T iPhone on the listing, and as such I could not be responsible for how he used it, especially since he was trying to use a carrier that was not AT&T.
After two days with no response, he opened a paypal case, stating the item had shipping damages. I then escalated this to the eBay customer support, and even provided them with a copy of an eBay message from the buyer stating he was happy with the phone and it came better than he expected, however he was just unable to activate the phone with T-Mobile.
Within 10 hours, ebay decided in the buyer's favor. I still can not see how they did this, considering I shipped with them, provided tracking and shipping insurance, and communicated back and fourth with the buyer about four times, not to mention the listing was very clear, I even bolding the text in the listing saying this iPhone was for AT&T only.
/end rant/
Well, what do you think? Is this a commonplace occurrence? Googling it, it seems so, however has anyone in the MacRumors community experienced something similar?
Long story short, I sold an iPhone about two weeks ago on ebay, the stock AT&T model iPhone 4 running iOS 5. I even wrote that it was an AT&T iPhone.
The buyer bought it and messaged me, saying he was unable to activate the phone with T-Mobile. I told him that it was clearly listed as an AT&T iPhone on the listing, and as such I could not be responsible for how he used it, especially since he was trying to use a carrier that was not AT&T.
After two days with no response, he opened a paypal case, stating the item had shipping damages. I then escalated this to the eBay customer support, and even provided them with a copy of an eBay message from the buyer stating he was happy with the phone and it came better than he expected, however he was just unable to activate the phone with T-Mobile.
Within 10 hours, ebay decided in the buyer's favor. I still can not see how they did this, considering I shipped with them, provided tracking and shipping insurance, and communicated back and fourth with the buyer about four times, not to mention the listing was very clear, I even bolding the text in the listing saying this iPhone was for AT&T only.
/end rant/
Well, what do you think? Is this a commonplace occurrence? Googling it, it seems so, however has anyone in the MacRumors community experienced something similar?