Section 101 of the copyright law provides a definition of the word "copy" for the purpose of interpretation of copyright law. A "copy" is the physical object which contains a copyrighted work, and from which the work could be perceived, reproduced, or otherwise communicated. An exception for this definition is a phonorecord (ie. a physical object containing an audio recording, other than a sound track for a motion picture or other audiovisual work), which is not considered a copy but is treated seperately.
The physical object is the copy, so ownership of the object is identical to ownership of the copy.
Wherever the law lists exceptions to exclusive rights, conditional on the user owning a "copy" of a copyrighted work (such as section 117), by definition the law is granting the exception to the owner of the physical object on which the work was conveyed.
In the case of computer software, the DVD would constitute a "copy". So, if you have legal ownership of the DVD, then for the purposes of copyright law, you do own a copy of the software. Mind you, you don't own the copyright to that software.
If Apple wants to prevent you from owning the copy of the software, then for the purposes of copyright law, their contention must be that you do not own the physical object on which the software was conveyed to you.
This information is all true and doesn't contradict what I was saying. The Autodesk case acknowledged several prior court decisions affirming that software is licensed, while still determining that for the purposes of the first sale doctrine the copy in the retail box was owned.
In the Psystar case, Apple is contending (per previous case law) that the copy on the DVD is licensed and not owned.
Now, even if it's possible that a Hackintosher might not be violating Apple's copyright, it's still entirely possible that they're independently violating a contract they entered into with Apple, namely, the EULA.
There are three main points in section 117 that require clarification by the courts. First is the issue above about whether the copy on the DVD is licensed or owned per copyright limitations. The second is whether the right of the consumer to install the software on "a" computer in order to "utilize" it applies to "any" computer or just a computer on which it was designed to be utilized. Third is whether the process required to install OS X on a non-Mac creates a derivative work.
I could understand the EULA if and only if I signed a license agreeing with the contract with Apple before handing over the money.
Not after the fact of purchasing when presented with the EULA and the fact is you cant disagree or receive any return of your money.
If your buying a "copy" its the same as buying any other software, your free to sell or use as you wish.
Apple doesnt have a leg to stand on!
If you are in the US, you are legally entitled to a refund if you do not agree to the license. Apple's license specifies this fact explicitly, so I assume it would apply most everywhere.
But this would all be a mute point if only Apple would fill a huge gapping hole in their product line, offer a vanilla box computer thats matches a price point of other similar PC's. Their market share would more than triple. It would be a win-win situation for computer users.
"If only they sold what I wanted at a price that I wanted, nobody would be forced to violate their licensing. I don't see why those greedy executives don't want the vast amounts of extra money that they would receive when the market share increases that I made up out of thin air occur. Sure, their margins would suffer, support would suffer, their brand would suffer, but higher market share! I mean, who could possibly lose as long as I get what I want?"