BZZZZ WRONG. From Case 4:20-cv-05640-YGR Document 812 Filed 09/10/21Monopolies are generally considered anything over 50% share. it doesn't really matter if it's 51% or 99% and the more important issue is anticompetitive practices that would be alleged.
"The threshold of market share for finding a prima facie case of monopoly power is generally no less than 65% market share. See Image Tech. Servs. II, 125 F.3d at 1206 (“Courts generally require a 65% market share to establish a prima facie case of market power.”); Hunt-Wesson, 627 F.2d at 924–25 (“market shares on the order of 60 percent to 70 percent have because its “ability to charge monopoly prices will necessarily be temporary”). A more conservative threshold would require a market share of 70% or higher for monopoly power. See Kolon Indus. Inc. v. E.I. DuPont de Nemours & Co., 748 F.3d 160, 174 (4th Cir. 2014) (“Although there is no fixed percentage market share that conclusively resolves whether monopoly power exists, the Supreme Court has never found a party with less than 75% market share to have monopoly power. And we have observed that when monopolization has been found the defendant controlled seventy to one hundred percent of the relevant market.” (citations omitted)); Syufy Enters. v. Am. Multicinema, Inc., 793 F.2d 990, 995 (9th Cir. 1986)
More over the judge Apple is in front of already decided: "Relying on the same documents, for 2015, the Court takes Apple’s 18% market share divided by 34% of the mobile share of the global market. For 2016, the Court takes Apple’s 21.8% market share divided by 40% of the mobile share of the global market."
Later there was this:
"Thus, the Court finds the relevant geographic market to be global."
Show me where Apple has ever had 50% of the global market must less the 65% required under legal president law to fall under monopoly.
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