Why isn’t Apple allowed to charge a fee to those who don’t use its preferred payment system for ongoing support and maintenance of the platform? They’re not allowed to charge rent? In what world does that make sense? Apple’s the one company on the planet that can’t charge for use of its property?The value Apple provides in this regard can be related to other factors such as the first payment you do in the store, developer fees or something else. But considering in this case regarding steering and allowing alternatives payment options and offer to be made it’s limited to the initial customer acquisition.
In other words, “it’s ok when European companies do it”.It’s wrong only because of it’s anticompetitive impacts and market abuse you can quantify and measure, and by history these things are shown to lead to specific market harms, therefore you need to prove the behavior your engaging in isn’t harmful. If none of that happens then it’s not wrong. Hence why smaller enterprises can do the thing. No more different than your monopoly laws that doesn’t impact small businesses 🤷♂️
No, what happened was EU decided the American companies must be doing something wrong so worked backwards to justify banning their practices. Literally that’s what happened!The rules have largely been consistent regarding what’s considered antitrust.
Companies and other entities accused that Apple committed antitrust violations and was therefore investigated in those accusations.
DMA is just Exanti ( before something happens) regulation instead of Expost( after the damage is done)
The justifications for the law was intentionally vague and retroactively applied to practices that have long been accepted in the market. And then on top of that, the EU skipped detailed economic studies that are normally done - no consumer harm calculations, no cost benefit analysis, etc.
As Pinar Akman stated:
The DMA assumes rather than demonstrates that the conduct it prohibits causes harm. This is antithetical to the core principles of antitrust and the rule of law.
Using ex-ante regulation presumes harm. Why would you presume something is harmful when it’s been in place for over a decade and sprouted a thriving industry? Because you know using traditional competition law would require case by case analysis proving harm that you wouldn’t be able to (because it’s not actually harmful).
This is absurd policy. Private companies can’t charge what they want? They have to “prove” their value is worth it?That’s up to the company to determine. Saying value or just gesturing to some abstract notion isn’t evidence of a monetary value. It must be quantifiable. The fact someone is willing to pay something doesn’t equal it’s value
The EU demands data driven justification: "Show us which specific service this fee pays for, at what cost."
Let’s get an investigation as to why European watchmakers charge tens and hundreds of thousands of dollars for watches. How can you quantify the value? I think it’s anticompetitive. I deserve a Patek or A. Lange and Söhne timepiece.
Here’s a justification: You keep saying developers have to use Apple’s property or they’ll go out of business. I say that’s worth 15-30% of their revenue. Why do you disagree?