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So the United States is apparently “no place in the world”.

Because they have split apart companies’ businesses multiple times (under antitrust laws).
Good for bringing that up. It turned out the same way. ATT is a shining example of a once glorious company that is now turned into three bottom feeder companies. The diff is that the money followed the split. The eu is forcing Apple to give its ip away for free.
 
Landlords do not own half of all housing or retail space (in the entire country).

The analogy is completely Apples and Oranges. No sane jurisdiction in the world would allow a profit-seeking duopoly in landlords exist - let alone charge people and businesses as they please.
Profit seeking and rent seeking aren’t illegal. (Thought I’d clarify that)
 
Profit seeking and rent seeking aren’t illegal
Within the boundaries of the applicable laws.

Since you mentioned it:

"Rent-seeking activities have negative effects on the rest of society. They result in reduced economic efficiency through misallocation of resources, stifled competition, reduced wealth creation, lost government revenue, heightened income inequality, heightened debt levels, risk of growing corruption and cronyism, decreased public trust in institutions, and potential national decline."

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rent-seeking

You seem to be advocating for (Apple's) rent-seeking activity, and I don't quite get why.
 
Exactly.

That's why I disagree with your argument and considered your analogy flawed.

It's not though.

Your argument is "Apple gets paid for its IP through the $99 developer fee, therefore the EU isn't taking Apple's property and giving it away."
Our argument: "No. $99 was set with the expectation that Apple would ALSO be receiving a percentage of the sales of digital goods and services inside the app. And that is explicitly spelled out in the developer agreement. So you can't claim the $99 is full payment for Apple's IP."

If a restaurant has a "kids eat for a dollar with purchase of an adult entree" deal, that doesn't mean that the kids' meal costs the restaurant a dollar. And I can't come in and say "I'm only paying a dollar and not buying an adult entree because the restaurant only charges a dollar."

That's what you're doing with your "Apple Charges for the Developer Program, therefore the EU isn't stealing from Apple. Checkmate, Monopolists" argument. It's nonsense.
 
Within the boundaries of the applicable laws.

Since you mentioned it:

"Rent-seeking activities have negative effects on the rest of society. They result in reduced economic efficiency through misallocation of resources, stifled competition, reduced wealth creation, lost government revenue, heightened income inequality, heightened debt levels, risk of growing corruption and cronyism, decreased public trust in institutions, and potential national decline."

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rent-seeking

You seem to be advocating for (Apple's) rent-seeking activity, and I don't quite get why.
You notice I used the word illegal. A very specific bar. Apple rent seeks as much as Ferrari if you apply the definition of what rent seeking actually means. it’s just another term that has become a meme due to its incorrect understanding.
 
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They are forced to give their up away for free.
Deciding to "sell" (access to) something at a low price isn't the same as "giving away for free".
Let alone being forced to do it.
If a restaurant has a "kids eat for a dollar with purchase of an adult entree" deal, that doesn't mean that the kids' meal costs the restaurant a dollar. And I can't come in and say "I'm only paying a dollar and not buying an adult entree because the restaurant only charges a dollar."
No problem when it's a competitive market for food and meals.

But when that restaurant controls all of the food/meal supplies in the area, the practice of
  • giving away meals for a dollar to obtain monopoly power
  • and charging a subset of customers (that can't prepare their own meals) 30% of their salary for food
...will not be tolerated to stand.

Again, there are very little entry barriers to selling food or meals and there's low market concentration on it.
That's why it's a competitive market.
The market for distribution of mobile applications isn't.

Our argument: "No. $99 was set with the expectation that Apple would ALSO be receiving a percentage of the sales of digital goods and services inside the app.
Maybe. Even if, it has been decided that that doesn't allow Apple to prevent developers from transacting elsewhere.
The percentage should be subject to competition.

Apple is free to come up with other pricing schemes.
It's not as if anyone forced them to do it this way.

They'd hugely profitable without charging 30% of sales anyway.
 
Deciding to "sell" (access to) something at a low price isn't the same as "giving away for free".
Let alone being forced to do it.

No problem when it's a competitive market for food and meals.

But when that restaurant controls all of the food/meal supplies in the area, the practice of
  • giving away meals for a dollar to obtain monopoly power
  • and charging a subset of customers (that can't prepare their own meals) 30% of their salary for food
...will not be tolerated to stand.

Again, there are very little entry barriers to selling food or meals and there's low market concentration on it.
That's why it's a competitive market.
The market for distribution of mobile applications isn't.


Maybe. Even if, it has been decided that that doesn't allow Apple to prevent developers from transacting elsewhere.
The percentage should be subject to competition.

Apple is free to come up with other pricing schemes.
It's not as if anyone forced them to do it this way.

They'd hugely profitable without charging 30% of sales anyway.
Again, the same nonsense over and over pretending Android doesn't exist, pretending that the same market dynamics don't exist on Android despite it being "open", pretending that Apple's commission structure hasn't gone down for the vast majority of developers, and using all of that pretending to justify stealing from a company because "they make too much money"
 
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Android exists - but it doesn't compete with Apple's App Store for digital transactions (in the short to medium term - since customers are locked into a platform by way of their hardware purchase.

I agree that similar market dynamics exist on Android - and that platform is accordingly also subject to the same regulations as Apple's business.

The commission rate has gone done for many developers - but not for the vast majority of transactions or revenue.

And Apple is allowed to make as much money as they can - under competitive circumstances (at least ones that allow for competition to emerge).

They've just been restricted from blocking competition with their own services.
 
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A whole lot of after-the fact rationalization for the EU taking away Apple's ability to charge developers for the hard work Apple does that allow developers' businesses to function like a two bit socialist republic.

Do you think Apple is providing developers something of value by creating and maintaining iOS and the associated APIs? If the answer is yes, why is 13-27% of the money they made (money they would not have made if Apple did not provide iOS and those APIs) not fair renumeration, when 30% is the industry standard across multiple app stores in multiple industries? Where would you set it? Why is Apple wrong? And if they are, why can't the EU be bothered to give a number they'd accept when they micromanage things like Apple's API choices, default apps, onboarding experience, and engineering decisions? All of that is ok to regulate but picking a number is getting too involved?
There’s no disputes that Apple should be paid for specific services. But in a court this value must be defined by actual data instead of vacuous claims. The DMA requires them to unbundle their fees and prove they’re charging for actual value to be compensated for the initial acquisition.

Your harking over why the EU won't give a number when the documents show Apple never proposed a defensible calculation. Apple wants the EU to design their pricing because any honest valuation of "initial acquisition" would be far lower than their current fees. If Apple wants to take 1.000.000€ year developer fee or 99% commission rates on the store and have a 30% revenue share for anyone using Xcode then they can.

But Apple is essentially arguing: "Trust us, we create lots of value, therefore any fee we choose is justified". This approach fails basic legal standards. Apple has not presented calculations, benchmarks, or methodologies that would satisfy these evidentiary requirements.
The EU's declaration that Apple can't charge developers for the underlying intellectual property that makes their apps function is ludicrous and an affront to the free market. No one is forced to develop for iOS, iOS has < 30% of the market in the EU, and yet the government declares "Apple's property is free to all who want access to it".
If Apple truly provides specific value worth 13-27% plus €0.50 per download, they need to present data showing what that value consists of, how they calculated it, and why it's proportionate to the specific service provided in regard to being remunerated for initial customer acquisition.
With a thought process like that, it's no wonder the only EU consumer tech company of note literally makes its billions exploiting the hard work of others. Apparently freeload, freeload, freeload is the name of the game in the EU. (Why is it not surprising they're also at the front of the line demanding to freeload from Apple)
Market share is still irrelevant to market power, this isn’t a monopoly case. The DMA doesn’t stop Apple charging for their value, it stops them charging for nothing without stating what that is different from the other fees. Until they can show how €0.50 per reinstall relates to ”initial acquisition”or why a 12-27% fee on external payments is ”matchmaking” they’re just proving the EU’s case. As well as agreeing their business terms was illegal.

Apple wants a tollbooth on innovation even when you don’t use their road.

The case documents reveal Apple making several crucial admissions that undermine their position.

First, Apple acknowledges in paragraph 216 that gatekeepers cannot charge fees "if the initial acquisition happened without the involvement of the gatekeeper." This admission creates a massive problem for their Core Technology Fee, which charges €0.50 for every download regardless of how users discovered the app.

Think through the implications: if a user finds an app through external advertising, downloads it directly, and never uses Apple's discovery systems, what "initial acquisition" service did Apple provide? Apple's own legal position says they shouldn't charge anything in these cases, yet their CTF applies universally.

Second, Apple admits that "initial acquisition can, by definition, happen only once" and occurs even without Apple's involvement when "the user has already been acquired by the app developer prior to downloading."

This acknowledgment completely contradicts their ongoing fee structure for alternative payments.

(216)Apple correctly notes that the gatekeeper is not entitled to charge any fee if the initial acquisition happened without the involvement of the gatekeeper. Indeed, the inclusion of the words "if applicable" in recital 40 of Regulation (EU) 2022/1925 in relation to remuneration for the initial acquisition acknowledges that there may be instances where the gatekeeper was not involved in facilitating the initial acquisition and that, therefore, the gatekeeper may not seek remuneration in such instances.

Apple also acknowledges that an initial acquisition can, by definition, happen only once. The user can therefore be considered
acquired even if there was no involvement from Apple, where the user has already been acquired by the app developer prior to downloading its app through the App Store.

The Commission's assessment of Apple's arguments
(269) The Commission finds that Apple has acted at the very least negligently, as it could not have been unaware that the measures described in Section 4 of this Decision did not comply with Article 5(4) of Regulation (EU) 2022/1925.

(270) First, Apple does not dispute that the Original Business Terms do not comply with Article 5(4) of Regulation (EU) 2022/1925 in that they totally prohibit steering within the app and Apple could not be unaware that all the conditions imposed by it under the New Business Terms and the New Music Streaming Business Terms restrict the developer's ability to steer.
 

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There’s no disputes that Apple should be paid for specific services. But in a court this value must be defined by actual data instead of vacuous claims. The DMA requires them to unbundle their fees and prove they’re charging for actual value to be compensated for the initial acquisition.
Why should the EU the arbiter of what a company is allowed to charge for use of its property? Again, significant competitors exist and no one is forced to develop for iOS, as much as you and the EU want to wave those facts away.

You’re harking over why the EU won't give a number when the documents show Apple never proposed a defensible calculation. Apple wants the EU to design their pricing because any honest valuation of "initial acquisition" would be far lower than their current fees. If Apple wants to take 1.000.000€ year developer fee or 99% commission rates on the store and have a 30% revenue share for anyone using Xcode then they can.

But Apple is essentially arguing: "Trust us, we create lots of value, therefore any fee we choose is justified". This approach fails basic legal standards. Apple has not presented calculations, benchmarks, or methodologies that would satisfy these evidentiary requirements.

If Apple truly provides specific value worth 13-27% plus €0.50 per download, they need to present data showing what that value consists of, how they calculated it, and why it's proportionate to the specific service provided in regard to being remunerated for initial customer acquisition.
I disagree that a company shouldn’t be allowed to charge what it wants to charge without very good reasons, and “they’re closed and the market leader is open” isn’t a good reason, let alone a very good one. The idea that Apple should have to justify the cost of their IP is, IMO ridiculous. It’s an overreach and explains a lot about the EU’s mindset.

Market share is still irrelevant to market power, this isn’t a monopoly case. The DMA doesn’t stop Apple charging for their value, it stops them charging for nothing without stating what that is different from the other fees. Until they can show how €0.50 per reinstall relates to ”initial acquisition”or why a 12-27% fee on external payments is ”matchmaking” they’re just proving the EU’s case. As well as agreeing their business terms was illegal.

Apple wants a tollbooth on innovation even when you don’t use their road.
You, by definition cannot build an iOS app that doesn’t use Apple’s road. iOS and the associated APIs are Apple’s property. Just because you wish it was otherwise doesn’t change the fact.

The case documents reveal Apple making several crucial admissions that undermine their position.

First, Apple acknowledges in paragraph 216 that gatekeepers cannot charge fees "if the initial acquisition happened without the involvement of the gatekeeper." This admission creates a massive problem for their Core Technology Fee, which charges €0.50 for every download regardless of how users discovered the app.
The CTF isn’t an acquisition fee. It’s for the underlying technology that Apple provides. You’re mixing, pardon the pun, Apples and Oranges.

Think through the implications: if a user finds an app through external advertising, downloads it directly, and never uses Apple's discovery systems, what "initial acquisition" service did Apple provide? Apple's own legal position says they shouldn't charge anything in these cases, yet their CTF applies universally.
Because it is for the underlying technology the developer is using to make their app function. Remember Core TECHNOLOGY Fee, not Core Acquisition Fee
Second, Apple admits that "initial acquisition can, by definition, happen only once" and occurs even without Apple's involvement when "the user has already been acquired by the app developer prior to downloading."

This acknowledgment completely contradicts their ongoing fee structure for alternative payments.
Only if you assume that Apple shouldn’t be allowed to charge ongoing fees for the ongoing use of its technology, which is as ludicrous as saying a landlord can only charge for rent once and then never again.
 
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Your harking over why the EU won't give a number when the documents show Apple never proposed a defensible calculation. Apple wants the EU to design their pricing because any honest valuation of "initial acquisition" would be far lower than their current fees. If Apple wants to take 1.000.000€ year developer fee or 99% commission rates on the store and have a 30% revenue share for anyone using Xcode then they can.

But Apple is essentially arguing: "Trust us, we create lots of value, therefore any fee we choose is justified". This approach fails basic legal standards. Apple has not presented calculations, benchmarks, or methodologies that would satisfy these evidentiary requirements.

If Apple truly provides specific value worth 13-27% plus €0.50 per download, they need to present data showing what that value consists of, how they calculated it, and why it's proportionate to the specific service provided in regard to being remunerated for initial customer acquisition.
How does one define value? For realtors, the standard, albeit currently under attack, has been 6%. But how does one prove that a $60K commission on a $1M house is worth the cost vs a $12K commission on a $200K house? If a developer earns $1M per year due to being in the App Store and earns only $100K per year in the Android store, does that prove the point? And if it does, how much of the $1M should Apple receive? Should they receive it every year or one time? Or if I am just learning to code and I post my new app but earn nothing besides marketing and business skills, what value is Apple providing me? (I would argue a lot actually) But if that new developer is making no $$, how should Apple be compensated for providing that learning platform?
The argument that Apple needs to show "value" is so nebulous because "value" is self-determined. Why do people buy expensive watches when a cheap Casio can just as easily tell time? Why do people purchase Audis or Lexus' when a Volkswagen or Toyota will still get you to your destination? IMO, Apple has shown their value just in the creation of an ecosystem that did not exist in 2007. And, as was recently reported in MacRumors, "the study suggests that the U.S. ‌App Store‌ facilitated $406 billion in developer billings and sales in 2024, and for 90 percent of those sales, developers paid no commission to Apple." How can one suggest that Apple has not created an ecosystem that has provided immense value to developers? It seems that the developers, that have greatly benefited from this system, along with the EU, think that Apple is just too successful and they don't want Apple to make so much $$.
 
As you clearly stated, that's the value for initial acquisition. That's not what I asked.
You asked for what I would do. And I did provide an example for it. I don’t have apples data to do an actual analysis, but that’s apples job to do.
Here you are applying a test for initial acquisition fees for steered transactions to CTF and alternate payments. Neither of which applies.


I think this is nonsense. Acquisition, platform access, and transaction fees are self-evidently for three different services.
Sir… Apple argued that the CTF, and 12-27% commission is neither acquisition, platform access or for any transactions
(203) Apple further argues that it does not charge a fee "for the conclusion of contracts","for steering", "for steered transactions" or "for the conclusion of contracts for steered transactions", but rather charges fees for the "significant value and services it provides to app developers"​


And Nothing is self-evident in a court of law just because youngster something you must be able to back it with something to explain why you did something.

You or anyone are free to go over the document and read it.
The EU essentially said "prove your fees are reasonable" and Apple responded "just tell us what reasonable means" - which misses the entire point of principles-based regulation.

The EU provided clear principles - fees must be limited in time, scope, and proportional to actual value provided. Apple's complaint isn't about unclear guidance; it's about not wanting to do the work of justifying their fee structure. The regulator's job is to set the guardrails, not to run Apple's business for them. If Apple can't explain how their fees relate to the actual value of initial user acquisition, that suggests the problem isn't regulatory clarity - it's that their fees aren't defensible.

Since it's clear to you... How exactly would you calculate the value to developers for access to the iOS platform?
 

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You asked for what I would do. And I did provide an example for it. I don’t have apples data to do an actual analysis, but that’s apples job to do.
No, I clearly asked how you would "calculate the value to developers for access to the iOS platform". You provided a way to calculate the value of initial acquisition. Those are different things.

And Nothing is self-evident in a court of law just because youngster something you must be able to back it with something to explain why you did something.
Of course they are. You listed three different fees for three different services - "acquisition fees AND platform fees AND payment fees". It is self evident that acquisition fees are for acquisition, platform fees are for the platform, and payment fees are for payments. And then you nonsensically claimed that all three fees can't be for the same service. This isn't complicated.
 
How does one define what an introduction is worth? If due to my introduction a company earns $100,000, how much was my intro worth? If due to my introduction a different company earns $1,000, how much was my intro worth? Is it the same? Should it be the same?
That’s up to Apple to decide, then present said formula and reasoning to how they came up to the number.
How does one define value? For realtors, the standard, albeit currently under attack, has been 6%. But how does one prove that a $60K commission on a $1M house is worth the cost vs a $12K commission on a $200K house? If a developer earns $1M per year due to being in the App Store and earns only $100K per year in the Android store, does that prove the point? And if it does, how much of the $1M should Apple receive? Should they receive it every year or one time? Or if I am just learning to code and I post my new app but earn nothing besides marketing and business skills, what value is Apple providing me? (I would argue a lot actually) But if that new developer is making no $$, how should Apple be compensated for providing that learning platform?
The argument that Apple needs to show "value" is so nebulous because "value" is self-determined. Why do people buy expensive watches when a cheap Casio can just as easily tell time? Why do people purchase Audis or Lexus' when a Volkswagen or Toyota will still get you to your destination? IMO, Apple has shown their value just in the creation of an ecosystem that did not exist in 2007. And, as was recently reported in MacRumors, "the study suggests that the U.S. ‌App Store‌ facilitated $406 billion in developer billings and sales in 2024, and for 90 percent of those sales, developers paid no commission to Apple." How can one suggest that Apple has not created an ecosystem that has provided immense value to developers? It seems that the developers, that have greatly benefited from this system, along with the EU, think that Apple is just too successful and they don't want Apple to make so much $$.
It all depends on how and why it’s levied. It can’t be multiple fees for the same services. Calling it something else doesn’t change the question for what it’s for.
Is it a commission? Initiall acquisition fee? Processing fee? Administrative fee? IP fees? Revenue share? Platform access fee?

Apple already have the 99€/year that covers x, same
Europe has a fundamental flaw in all their digital legislation and regulations: they start with the assumption that all hardware, OSs and platforms are inherently generic and interchangeable. But then this is the same body who levy a massive fine against Apple "on behalf of Ireland" when even the Irish said they are owed nothing. The EU is going to destroy themselves on many fronts, but one would think they could look at digital functions and at least demonstrate some competence.
Lol, it’s not on behalf of Ireland. Ireland broke EU tax law regarding state subsidies and.
But there is for mobile applications, which is actually the relevant market.


Apple’s customer satisfaction, particularly around safety and security, highly suggests it is.
Its categorically not the relevant market as has clearly been explained why in accordance with EU law.
Well then Apple must be doing something right, and access to its customers might be worth paying 15-30% for.

I humbly suggest that the reason Apple has a larger portion of revenue than their market share is because the safety and security of the App Store model leads to customers feeling comfortable paying for digital goods and services on the platform because they know they’re not going to get fleeced.

Or maybe rampant piracy is artificially reducing the profitability of Android apps. In which case, again, maybe Apple’s rules are worth it.
Then the free market will reward Apple with the fair competitive edge apples superior services provided.
Why should the EU the arbiter of what a company is allowed to charge for use of its property? Again, significant competitors exist and no one is forced to develop for iOS, as much as you and the EU want to wave those facts away.
Eu makes laws for the EU market. U.S. sensibilities aren’t relevant.
I disagree that a company shouldn’t be allowed to charge what it wants to charge without very good reasons, and “they’re closed and the market leader is open” isn’t a good reason, let alone a very good one. The idea that Apple should have to justify the cost of their IP is, IMO ridiculous. It’s an overreach and explains a lot about the EU’s mindset.


You, by definition cannot build an iOS app that doesn’t use Apple’s road. iOS and the associated APIs are Apple’s property. Just because you wish it was otherwise doesn’t change the fact.
Apple is getting paid for their IP. Now they have to distinguish what IP cost is included in the 99€/ developer plan that free apps pay, and what fee the 0.5€ CTF relates to for the exact same app in the AppStore but in the new agreement.
The CTF isn’t an acquisition fee. It’s for the underlying technology that Apple provides. You’re mixing, pardon the pun, Apples and Oranges.


Because it is for the underlying technology the developer is using to make their app function. Remember Core TECHNOLOGY Fee, not Core Acquisition Fee

Only if you assume that Apple shouldn’t be allowed to charge ongoing fees for the ongoing use of its technology, which is as ludicrous as saying a landlord can only charge for rent once and then never again.
Calling it Core technology fee doesn’t make it such. Just how you can’t say sale/purchase but mean a rental licensing agreement.

Apple can use the development agreement to levy an ongoing charge.

The article is clear in DMA article 5:
4. The gatekeeper shall allow business users, free of charge, to communicate and promote offers, including under different conditions, to end users acquired via its core platform service or through other channels, and to conclude contracts with those end users, regardless of whether, for that purpose, they use the core platform services of the gatekeeper.​
 
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No, I clearly asked how you would "calculate the value to developers for access to the iOS platform". You provided a way to calculate the value of initial acquisition. Those are different things.
I wouldn’t calculate the value to developers to access iOS as it’s not what EU asked.
Of course they are. You listed three different fees for three different services - "acquisition fees AND platform fees AND payment fees". It is self evident that acquisition fees are for acquisition, platform fees are for the platform, and payment fees are for payments. And then you nonsensically claimed that all three fees can't be for the same service. This isn't complicated.
Well tell Apple that. Considering they have a hard time separating this without insisting on package deal for the court
 
I wouldn’t calculate the value to developers to access iOS as it’s not what EU asked.
It's certainly what I asked. But your refusal supports my point that the value of the platform isn't clearly defined.

Well tell Apple that. Considering they have a hard time separating this without insisting on package deal for the court
That's not what you said. You said Apple can't charge multiple fees for the same service, despite each fee you listed as being for different services. Now you're arguing that Apple can't charge one fee for multiple services without breaking them down separately.
 
It's certainly what I asked. But your refusal supports my point that the value of the platform isn't clearly defined.
It’s for Apple to calculate it. It’s not clearly defined because apple doesn’t want it clearly defined.
That's not what you said. You said Apple can't charge multiple fees for the same service, despite each fee you listed as being for different services. Now you're arguing that Apple can't charge one fee for multiple services without breaking them down separately.
Article 5(4) of Regulation (EU) 2022/1925 also does not entitle Apple to obtain remuneration for the subsequent and on-going "overall value which the developer obtains from the referral by Apple"
the end user is acquired when it makes a payment to the app developer to download the app and Apple has already been remunerated (through the Commission Fee on the purchase price of the app) for facilitating such initial acquisition, and accordingly, no further payment can be due as remuneration for the initial acquisition.


Yes apple can’t have one fee for multiple thinks when the law requires it to be zero for the exception of acquisition remunerated
Apple haven’t provided any acquisition fees they have shared platform fees AND payment fees. Such as the 99€/year membership fee, normal 15-30% commission, CTF and 12-27% alternate payment/link commission ( 3% is for payment processing)
 
That sounds awful. Of course it’s coming from people who think cookie banners and browser choice screens are a good idea. What if the user has its phone muted, or has said I don’t want that pop up message? Does Apple still have to ensure it?

The EU has no taste, no inkling on good user experiences no idea how competition actually works, and isn’t qualified to be regulating iOS at all. They won’t be happy until iOS is a slightly more attractive skin on top of Android.
Indeed it does. And such app I would not use.

But Apple isn’t able to donor themselves so it seems the government puts a an extreme exception. If only Apple hadn’t been maliciously complying and been smart about it 🤷‍♂️
 
It’s for Apple to calculate it. It’s not clearly defined because apple doesn’t want it clearly defined.
Glad you finally admitted that it's not clearly defined.

Article 5(4) of Regulation (EU) 2022/1925 also does not entitle Apple to obtain remuneration for the subsequent and on-going "overall value which the developer obtains from the referral by Apple"
the end user is acquired when it makes a payment to the app developer to download the app and Apple has already been remunerated (through the Commission Fee on the purchase price of the app) for facilitating such initial acquisition, and accordingly, no further payment can be due as remuneration for the initial acquisition.

Yes apple can’t have one fee for multiple thinks when the law requires it to be zero for the exception of acquisition remunerated
Apple haven’t provided any acquisition fees they have shared platform fees AND payment fees. Such as the 99€/year membership fee, normal 15-30% commission, CTF and 12-27% alternate payment/link commission ( 3% is for payment processing)
This is your usual out of context nonsense. You're quoting regulation about acquisition fees for steered transactions as if they apply to fees in general.
 
Indeed it does. And such app I would not use.
I will never understand how anyone thinks it’s appropriate for the government to be getting into this level of detail about how iOS works.

What’s next, developers deserve to be able to serve advertisements however they want, so Apple isn’t allowed to block pop windows in Safari?

But Apple isn’t able to donor themselves so it seems the government puts a an extreme exception. If only Apple hadn’t been maliciously complying and been smart about it 🤷‍♂️
Apple isn’t complying maliciously. They’re trying to comply to the least extent possible because it’s a terrible law, written by people who aren’t qualified to work as interns at Apple, wouldn’t know good user experience or software design if it hit them in the face (as your example above shows), that will chill innovation, reduce users’ privacy and security, ironically reduces the chance for true competition, and gives away Apple’s IP like it’s a public good to boot!

Maliciously complying would be “no security checks at all on third party app stores/sideloading” and when consumers hose their devices, give them the number for their MEP and say “they made us allow sketchy apps to work on the iPhone, reach out to your government for tech support - notice iOS in the US doesn’t have these problems”
 
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I will never understand how anyone thinks it’s appropriate for the government to be getting into this level of detail about how iOS works.

What’s next, developers deserve to be able to serve advertisements however they want, so Apple isn’t allowed to block pop windows in Safari?


Apple isn’t complying maliciously. They’re trying to comply to the least extent possible because it’s a terrible law, written by people who aren’t qualified to work as interns at Apple, wouldn’t know good user experience or software design if it hit them in the face (as your example above shows), that will chill innovation, reduce users’ privacy and security, ironically reduces the chance for true competition, and gives away Apple’s IP like it’s a public good to boot!

Maliciously complying would be “no security checks at all on third party app stores/sideloading” and when consumers hose their devices, give them the number for their MEP and say “they made us allow sketchy apps to work on the iPhone, reach out to your government for tech support - notice iOS in the US doesn’t have these problems”
your fearmongering is off the charts let's just say that. The government is regulating apple in order to not allow corporations to become too powerful.

Of course blocking pop windows in safari is the right thing to do. No one ever implied this should be changed. And no one said the law is perfect or even good - it honestly should be way harsher especially after Trump tariffs.

Good user experience is and will always be subjective. innovation and security? privacy and "IP stealing"? fear, uncertainty, doubt?

Some of y'all have a personal relationship with a trillion dollar company
 
The government is regulating apple in order to not allow corporations to become too powerful.
Then they're failing miserably. To be clear, I have no problem regulating the smartphone market or Apple specifically. I just think there are parts of the DMA that make product design choices that do nothing to fix the problem while creating new problems. For example, side loading and third-party app stores already failed to generate competition on Android after more than a decade.

What are the problems that developer and consumers are actually having that should be addressed?
Commissions? Then limit commissions, especially in areas like music where Apple competes.
Apple not approving certain types of apps? Form an appeals board that can weigh whether they should be approved.
Not enough platform diversity? End Google's anticompetitive agreements with all of its competitors.
 
Glad you finally admitted that it's not clearly defined.
Obviously, until apple defined it.
This is your usual out of context nonsense. You're quoting regulation about acquisition fees for steered transactions as if they apply to fees in general.
Its the context of the thread we are talking in. Or haven’t you followed along what the point of the article and why Apple is fined?
 
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