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His intent was he clear. He intended to steal a phone and keep it or sell it. At some point he figured out it was more valuable then he even thought. His intent is pretty clear.
When he took the item out of the place where he found it and never turned it in to the police, he had proven his intent was to steal it. Leaving with the phone is probably enough intent. Leaving with it and never contacting the police means you had no other intent but to have stolen it.
He saw the phone and said to himself, hmm, I should take it because someone left it there.
Sounds like intent to me. If he went to the manager of the bar and they refused to take it from him, that would show he did not intend to steal it. Anything else shows his intent to steal it.
No reasonable person would assume the best way to find the lost owner of an item would be to remove it from the place it was lost. It would be different if it were found in a public space but it was not. It was find in a bar. Thus anything short of turning it into the bar is intent to steal. For all he knew it was someone who worked at the bar.
I would say you would have to have a pretty dumb jury and/or judge to claim his intent was not to steal this item.
No, No. No. I respectfully disagree with you. It might sound like intent to you, but that is the classic example of "theft by opportunity" which inherently lacks intent.
Assuming we are still discussing prosecutable angles of the California Penal Code, not touching upon Federal or Codes of Civil Procedures, etc.:
A State's attorney would have to PROVE the intent was to steal it, not that it was his intent to keep it. Two very different legal concepts. It would have to be proven that he intended to "steal" it (i.e.- knowingly deprive another of their property with the intent to permanently deprive the owner of its use.). In this case, there is no evidence suggesting he intended to steal the device. There are only indications that he took it into his possession. There is neither evidence that he intended to steal it, nor that he intended to "permanently" deprive the owner of it.
In fact, if it could be proven that the Finder entered the bar with the intent to steal the device, you would also have the added charge of 459 PC, burglary, a felony. A burglary is defined as entering a 4-sided structure WITH THE INTENT to commit any felony or petty theft.
If a guy goes into 7-11 and leaves with a case of beer without paying for it or making an attempt to pay for it, it is still just petty theft unless you can PROVE he intended to steal it. That would include presenting sufficient evidence that would allow a reasonable person to reach the conclusion the intent existed - such things as making no attempt to produce the item to a clerk, or intentionally bypassing the register, or not having sufficient money to purchase the item, etc. It is still not a slam-dunk, the circumstantial evidence must be presented in court before a tryer of fact.
The Finder's attempts to return the device (as reported: contacting Apple, asking around, waiting around) are defenses to the specific intent argument.
What we *can* likely prove is Gizmodo's intent to receive stolen property. They made NO reported attempt to return the device, however, I can't immediately recall a code section that would require Gizmodo to perform a due diligence to determine whether the Finder was lawfully in possession of it.
Sorta like when you buy a car through the newspaper ads. If you buy it from Scheister A for a ridiculously low price, and later you are pulled over by the police, they confiscate the car (i.e.- recover the stolen property), but the burden was not on you to exhaustively determine whether the car was stolen or not, even if it was priced wayyy below market. Likewise, I can see the argument that Gizmodo is not burdened to seek out whether the phone was stolen or not, but would expect to be out the $5,000 if the property is repatriated to the acutal owner.