When (if) I get married, I would not expect to get any of my partners assets at all.... I see no reason why I would be entitled to her money
My I give you a scenario.
You meet someone, she has a better career and is better paid than you.
Substantially so.
However she soon falls pregnant. You decide to marry after the baby is born as well as purchasing your first house.
It is decided that after the birth, because her career is more financially advantageous, you both agree that
you should stay at home and bring up baby, because you will both be better off.
You buy a house.
Because you're now married, the house you purchase is placed in joint names.
However because you are the house husband, bringing up baby with no income of your own. The mortgage and running costs are paid for
entirely by your partner.
Fiscally, you contribute nothing because you're not earning. Instead you contribute to the family unit by bringing up baby, and running the home, (cleaning, cooking, shopping etc).
3 years later, baby is ready to attend nursery and you can now resume your career.
However, because of marital difficulties your wife says she wishes to divorce you.
You have contributed
nothing to either acquiring, running or maintaining the property.
However, legally, your name is on the deeds and you
own half the property.
Do you think you should be entitled to half of the property?
Do you think you should be financially compensated for sacrificing your career for the benefit of your family and your wife? Money that she was only able to earn because you were willing to make that sacrifice?