So Master Wang is arguing that because an Intel chip costs 18% more than an aging A6 CPU in relation to the total cost if the devices, Apple will move to A8, who's cost we do not know, and move to a tablet platform, where according to themselves, the screen costs 19% more than the LCD in the laptop? So basically, it is safe to assume that the margins in both devices would arguably be very similar? Am I missing his point here, or is the argument simoly flawed from the start?