IANAL, but as I understand it PE is a common law concept similar to the doctrine of first sale, and does not prevent a company from attaching licensing terms to a sale. If Apple agrees to the terms of the sale, including licensing, they should have no recourse to change the agreement based on PE Doctrine. Apple can resellthe modems under the PE concept wherever it wants, and pay what it agreed to pay.
Isn’t FRAND applicable to a standard set by an standards setting organization, who often will not set a standard that uses patented technology unless the holder agrees to FRAND licensing? It is, as far as I know, not a law but rather an agreement amongst members of a standards organization.
Of course.
I just saw your post. If Qualcomm did indeed agree to FRAND licensing then it is different. Apple, if they buy the chips from Qualcomm is not a downstream buyer of the product but is directly agreeing to terms when they buy it as the first purchaser who then has the chips go to an assembler, who would be protected by PE.
As for FRAND, it appears to be a contract issue and not a legal requirement that would force a company to license patents on a FRAND basis simply because others adopt it as a standard, absent the patent holders agreement to FRAND licensing.
You are incorrect. Patent exhaustion applies whether or not the parties attempt to license around it. See, eg:
“First up are the Return Program cartridges that Lexmark sold in the United States. We conclude that Lexmark exhausted its patent rights in these cartridges the moment it sold them. The single-use/no-resale restrictions in Lexmark's contracts with customers may have been clear and enforceable under contract law, but they do not entitle Lexmark to retain patent rights in an item that it has elected to sell.” Impression Products, Inc. v. Lexmark Int'l, Inc., 137 S.Ct. 1523, 1531 (2017)
“A patentee's authority to limit licensees does not, as the Federal Circuit thought, mean that patentees can use licenses to impose post-sale restrictions on purchasers that are enforceable through the patent laws. So long as a licensee complies with the license when selling an item, the patentee has, in effect, authorized the sale. That licensee's sale is treated, for purposes of patent exhaustion, as if the patentee made the sale itself. The result: The sale exhausts the patentee's rights in that item. See Hobbie v. Jennison, 149 U.S. 355, 362-363, 13 S.Ct. 879, 37 L.Ed. 766 (1893). A license may require the licensee to impose a restriction on purchasers, like the license limiting the computer manufacturer to selling for non-commercial use by individuals. But if the licensee does so by, perhaps, having each customer sign a contract promising not to use the computers in business the sale nonetheless exhausts all patent rights in the item sold. See Motion Picture Patents Co. v. Universal Film Mfg. Co., 243 U.S. 502, 506-507, 516, 37 S.Ct. 416, 61 L.Ed. 871 (1917). The purchasers might not comply with the restriction, but the only recourse for the licensee is through contract law, just as if the patentee itself sold the item with a restriction.” Impression Products, Inc. v. Lexmark Int'l, Inc., 137 S.Ct. 1523, 1534-1535 (2017)
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IANAL, but as I understand it PE is a common law concept similar to the doctrine of first sale, and does not prevent a company from attaching licensing terms to a sale. If Apple agrees to the terms of the sale, including licensing, they should have no recourse to change the agreement based on PE Doctrine. Apple can resellthe modems under the PE concept wherever it wants, and pay what it agreed to pay.
Isn’t FRAND applicable to a standard set by an standards setting organization, who often will not set a standard that uses patented technology unless the holder agrees to FRAND licensing? It is, as far as I know, not a law but rather an agreement amongst members of a standards organization.
Of course.
I just saw your post. If Qualcomm did indeed agree to FRAND licensing then it is different. Apple, if they buy the chips from Qualcomm is not a downstream buyer of the product but is directly agreeing to terms when they buy it as the first purchaser who then has the chips go to an assembler, who would be protected by PE.
As for FRAND, it appears to be a contract issue and not a legal requirement that would force a company to license patents on a FRAND basis simply because others adopt it as a standard, absent the patent holders agreement to FRAND licensing.
You are also incorrect re frand. If a party had a frand obligation and sues for patent infringement, the measure of damages will be determined by applying FRAND. The court will determine a FRAND rate.